Question:
A planet orbits a star in an elliptical orbit. The distance at aphelion is $2a$ and the distance at perihelion is $a$. Find the ratio of the planets speed at perihelion to that at aphelion.
Answer:
According to Kepler's second law, the area swept out per unit time by a radius from the star to a planet is constant. The area can be expressed by
\[
dA = \frac{1}{2}r rd\theta
\]
Take the derivative in terms of time.
\[
\frac{dA}{dt}=\frac{1}{2}r^2 \frac{d\theta}{dt}
\]
$\frac{d\theta}{dt}$ is the angular velocity, $\omega$. We know angular momentum $L=mr^2\omega$. Thus,
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{dA}{dt} &=& \frac{1}{2}r^2\omega \\
&=& \frac{L}{2m}
\end{eqnarray}
This shows that the equal area per unit time indicates constant angular momentum, $L$. We get back to the original expression of the angular momentum, $L=mr^2\omega$. We also know that $v=r\omega$ and $v$ is the tangential speed, so $L=mvr$. Compare the angular momenta at perihelion and aphelion.
\[
L = mv_{\mathrm{p}}a = mv_{\mathrm{a}}2a
\]
Therefore the ratio of the speeds is
\[
v_{\mathrm{p}}:v_{\mathrm{a}}=2:1
\]
We can state that Kepler's second law is essentially equal to the conservation of angular momentum. The more radius, the slower the planet has. The less radius, the faster the planet gets.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A blog about solving problems of science and mathematics
Monday, February 29, 2016
Gravitational field at height from the surface of a planet
Question:
Find the magnitude of the gravitational acceleration near the surface of a planet of radius $R$ at height, $h$ to the second order. Let $g_0$ be the gravitational acceleration at $h=0$.
Answer:
Use the universal law of gravitation.
\[
mg = \frac{GMm}{r^2}
\]
So
\[
g = \frac{GM}{r^2}
\]
The distance $r$ is the radius of the planet and the height, $r=R+h$
\[
g = \frac{GM}{(R+h)^2}
\]
We can arrange it as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
& & g = \frac{GM}{R^2}\frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{h}{R} \right)^2} \\
& & g = g_0 \frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{h}{R} \right)^2}
\end{eqnarray}
Since $h \ll R$, we can use expansion, $\sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n$. The second order of the approximation is
\[
g=g_0 \left[ 1 - 2\frac{h}{R} + 3\left(\frac{h}{R}\right)^2 \right]
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Find the magnitude of the gravitational acceleration near the surface of a planet of radius $R$ at height, $h$ to the second order. Let $g_0$ be the gravitational acceleration at $h=0$.
Answer:
Use the universal law of gravitation.
\[
mg = \frac{GMm}{r^2}
\]
So
\[
g = \frac{GM}{r^2}
\]
The distance $r$ is the radius of the planet and the height, $r=R+h$
\[
g = \frac{GM}{(R+h)^2}
\]
We can arrange it as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
& & g = \frac{GM}{R^2}\frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{h}{R} \right)^2} \\
& & g = g_0 \frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{h}{R} \right)^2}
\end{eqnarray}
Since $h \ll R$, we can use expansion, $\sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n$. The second order of the approximation is
\[
g=g_0 \left[ 1 - 2\frac{h}{R} + 3\left(\frac{h}{R}\right)^2 \right]
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Conservation of energy and spring and pendulum bob
Question:
A pendulum bob is released from the height of $h$ to hit a spring that creates the force $F=-kx-bx^3$ in terms of the displacement. If the pendulum has mass $m$, find the compression displacement of the spring.
Answer:
Find the potential energy of spring. Since it is a conservative force, we integrate it in terms of displacement.
\[
U = -\int F dx = \int kx+bx^3 dx = \frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{4}bx^4
\]
The potential energy of the bob is $mgh$. This can be transferred into the spring energy, so
\[
mgh = \frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{4}bx^4
\]
Rearrange it to solve for $x$:
\begin{eqnarray}
& & x^4 +\frac{2k}{b}x^2 = \frac{4mgh}{b} \\
& & \left(x^2+\frac{k}{b}\right)^2 - \frac{k^2}{b^2} = \frac{4mgh}{b} \\
& & x^2 + \frac{k}{b} = \sqrt{\frac{4mgh}{b}+\frac{k^2}{b^2}} \\
& & x = \sqrt{\sqrt{\frac{4mgh}{b}+\frac{k^2}{b^2}} -\frac{k}{b}}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A pendulum bob is released from the height of $h$ to hit a spring that creates the force $F=-kx-bx^3$ in terms of the displacement. If the pendulum has mass $m$, find the compression displacement of the spring.
Answer:
Find the potential energy of spring. Since it is a conservative force, we integrate it in terms of displacement.
\[
U = -\int F dx = \int kx+bx^3 dx = \frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{4}bx^4
\]
The potential energy of the bob is $mgh$. This can be transferred into the spring energy, so
\[
mgh = \frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{4}bx^4
\]
Rearrange it to solve for $x$:
\begin{eqnarray}
& & x^4 +\frac{2k}{b}x^2 = \frac{4mgh}{b} \\
& & \left(x^2+\frac{k}{b}\right)^2 - \frac{k^2}{b^2} = \frac{4mgh}{b} \\
& & x^2 + \frac{k}{b} = \sqrt{\frac{4mgh}{b}+\frac{k^2}{b^2}} \\
& & x = \sqrt{\sqrt{\frac{4mgh}{b}+\frac{k^2}{b^2}} -\frac{k}{b}}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Sunday, February 28, 2016
Equation for a linear line: Knowing the coordinates of two points
Question:
A line goes through points (-3, 9) and (2, 4). Find the equation of the linear line.
Answer:
There are two methods. You can use a line equation with two unknowns:
\[
y = ax + b
\]
where $a$ is the slope and $b$ is the intercept. Plug in the coordinates to solve for simultaneous equations.
\begin{eqnarray}
9 &=& -3a + b \\
4 &=& 2a + b
\end{eqnarray}
(1)-(2) gives $5 = -5a$. Thus, $a=-1$. Plug back in either equation and we get $b=6$. The line equation is
\[
y = -x + 6
\]
The other method is to utilize following formula:
\[
(y-y_1)=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}(x-x_1)
\]
The factor, $\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}$, corresponds to the slope. After plugging in the coordinates, we can obtain the same result.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A line goes through points (-3, 9) and (2, 4). Find the equation of the linear line.
Answer:
There are two methods. You can use a line equation with two unknowns:
\[
y = ax + b
\]
where $a$ is the slope and $b$ is the intercept. Plug in the coordinates to solve for simultaneous equations.
\begin{eqnarray}
9 &=& -3a + b \\
4 &=& 2a + b
\end{eqnarray}
(1)-(2) gives $5 = -5a$. Thus, $a=-1$. Plug back in either equation and we get $b=6$. The line equation is
\[
y = -x + 6
\]
The other method is to utilize following formula:
\[
(y-y_1)=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}(x-x_1)
\]
The factor, $\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}$, corresponds to the slope. After plugging in the coordinates, we can obtain the same result.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Saturday, February 27, 2016
Gravitational force: Moon causing a tidal force on the Earth's ocean
Question:
The gravitational force between the moon and Earth creates a tidal force. From the figure, $a$ is the distance between the moon and the Earth. $M$ and $m$ are the masses of Earth and moon, respectively. $r$ denotes the radius of Earth. Find the differential tidal acceleration.
Answer:
The tidal force is obtained by the difference of gravitational fields between C (center of mass) and S (place to get tidal force). This can be associated with the differential tidal acceleration. Let us write down each gravitational acceleration.
\begin{eqnarray}
g_C &=& \frac{Gm}{a^2} \\
g_S &=& \frac{Gm}{(a+r)^2}
\end{eqnarray}
The difference of them is the tidal acceleration.
\begin{eqnarray}
g_C -g_S &=& \frac{Gm}{a^2} - \frac{Gm}{(a+r)^2} \\
&=& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\frac{a^2}{(a+r)^2}\right) \\
&=& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\frac{1}{(1+\frac{r}{a})^2}\right) \\
&\sim& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\left\{1-2\frac{r}{a}\right\}\right)
\end{eqnarray}
The above uses approximation. Hence, we have
\[
g_{\mathrm{tidal}} = \frac{2Gmr}{a^3}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The gravitational force between the moon and Earth creates a tidal force. From the figure, $a$ is the distance between the moon and the Earth. $M$ and $m$ are the masses of Earth and moon, respectively. $r$ denotes the radius of Earth. Find the differential tidal acceleration.
Answer:
The tidal force is obtained by the difference of gravitational fields between C (center of mass) and S (place to get tidal force). This can be associated with the differential tidal acceleration. Let us write down each gravitational acceleration.
\begin{eqnarray}
g_C &=& \frac{Gm}{a^2} \\
g_S &=& \frac{Gm}{(a+r)^2}
\end{eqnarray}
The difference of them is the tidal acceleration.
\begin{eqnarray}
g_C -g_S &=& \frac{Gm}{a^2} - \frac{Gm}{(a+r)^2} \\
&=& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\frac{a^2}{(a+r)^2}\right) \\
&=& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\frac{1}{(1+\frac{r}{a})^2}\right) \\
&\sim& \frac{Gm}{a^2}\left(1-\left\{1-2\frac{r}{a}\right\}\right)
\end{eqnarray}
The above uses approximation. Hence, we have
\[
g_{\mathrm{tidal}} = \frac{2Gmr}{a^3}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Gravitational field of a hollow sphere
Question:
A hollow sphere has region $a<r<b$ filled with mass of uniform density $\rho$. Find the magnitude of the gravitational field between $a$ and $b$.
Answer:
Utilize Gauss's law for gravitational fields.
\[
\int_{S} g d\alpha = -4\pi GM
\]
As we know, if there is no mass in a sphere, no gravitational field is detected. Thus, when $r<a$, $g=0$. We can also find the field when $r>b$.
\[
\int_{S} g d\alpha = -4\pi GM \\
\rightarrow 4 \pi r^2 g = -4 \pi GM \\
\rightarrow g = \frac{GM}{r^2}
\]
The integral of left hand side gives surface area of a sphere. For $a<r<b$, the mass, $M$, depends on the volume.
\[
M_{a-b} = \int \rho dV = \rho \int^{r}_{a}r^2 \int^{\pi}_{0}\sin \theta d\theta \int^{2\pi}_{0}d\phi \\
=\rho\frac{4\pi}{3}(r^3-a^3)
\]
From Gauss's law,
\[
-4\pi r^2 g = -4\pi G \rho\frac{4\pi}{3}(r^3-a^3)
\]
Therefore, we have the gravitational field in $a<r<b$.
\[
g = \frac{4\pi}{3}G\rho\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A hollow sphere has region $a<r<b$ filled with mass of uniform density $\rho$. Find the magnitude of the gravitational field between $a$ and $b$.
Answer:
Utilize Gauss's law for gravitational fields.
\[
\int_{S} g d\alpha = -4\pi GM
\]
As we know, if there is no mass in a sphere, no gravitational field is detected. Thus, when $r<a$, $g=0$. We can also find the field when $r>b$.
\[
\int_{S} g d\alpha = -4\pi GM \\
\rightarrow 4 \pi r^2 g = -4 \pi GM \\
\rightarrow g = \frac{GM}{r^2}
\]
The integral of left hand side gives surface area of a sphere. For $a<r<b$, the mass, $M$, depends on the volume.
\[
M_{a-b} = \int \rho dV = \rho \int^{r}_{a}r^2 \int^{\pi}_{0}\sin \theta d\theta \int^{2\pi}_{0}d\phi \\
=\rho\frac{4\pi}{3}(r^3-a^3)
\]
From Gauss's law,
\[
-4\pi r^2 g = -4\pi G \rho\frac{4\pi}{3}(r^3-a^3)
\]
Therefore, we have the gravitational field in $a<r<b$.
\[
g = \frac{4\pi}{3}G\rho\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Friday, February 26, 2016
Radio active decay: Half life
Question:
Find the half life for the process of radioactive decay. Assume that $\lambda$ is the decay constant.
Answer:
The radioactive decay is understood as the comparison of the numbers of nucleus at time $t$ and time $t+\Delta t$. The difference of the numbers can be expressed as $N(t)-N(t+\Delta t)$, and this is proportional to a rate, $\lambda$.
\[
N(t)-N(t+\Delta t) = -\lambda N(t) \Delta t
\]
The right hand side indicates how the number decreases for $\Delta t$. We can rearrange it as
\[
\frac{N(t)-N(t+\Delta t)}{\Delta t}=\frac{dN}{dt}=-\lambda N(t)
\]
This is a first order of differential equation with respect to time. Again, rearrange and integrate it as follows:
\[
\int^N_{N_0} \frac{dN}{N}=\int^{t}_{0} -\lambda dt
\]
This gives
\[
\ln \frac{N}{N_0} = -\lambda t \quad \rightarrow \quad N=N_0e^{-\lambda t}
\]
In order to find the half life, let $N=\frac{N_0}{2}$. Then derive the time, $t_{0.5}$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& & \frac{N_0}{2}=N_0e^{-\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & \frac{1}{2} = e^{-\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & 2 = e^{\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & \lambda t_{0.5} = \ln 2 \\
\rightarrow & & t_{0.5} = \frac{\ln 2}{\lambda}
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, the half life is given by $\frac{0.693}{\lambda}$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Find the half life for the process of radioactive decay. Assume that $\lambda$ is the decay constant.
Answer:
The radioactive decay is understood as the comparison of the numbers of nucleus at time $t$ and time $t+\Delta t$. The difference of the numbers can be expressed as $N(t)-N(t+\Delta t)$, and this is proportional to a rate, $\lambda$.
\[
N(t)-N(t+\Delta t) = -\lambda N(t) \Delta t
\]
The right hand side indicates how the number decreases for $\Delta t$. We can rearrange it as
\[
\frac{N(t)-N(t+\Delta t)}{\Delta t}=\frac{dN}{dt}=-\lambda N(t)
\]
This is a first order of differential equation with respect to time. Again, rearrange and integrate it as follows:
\[
\int^N_{N_0} \frac{dN}{N}=\int^{t}_{0} -\lambda dt
\]
This gives
\[
\ln \frac{N}{N_0} = -\lambda t \quad \rightarrow \quad N=N_0e^{-\lambda t}
\]
In order to find the half life, let $N=\frac{N_0}{2}$. Then derive the time, $t_{0.5}$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& & \frac{N_0}{2}=N_0e^{-\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & \frac{1}{2} = e^{-\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & 2 = e^{\lambda t_{0.5}} \\
\rightarrow & & \lambda t_{0.5} = \ln 2 \\
\rightarrow & & t_{0.5} = \frac{\ln 2}{\lambda}
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, the half life is given by $\frac{0.693}{\lambda}$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A binary star system and Kepler's law
Question:
Consider a binary star system to find the mass of the stars. The distance between them is found out to be $a$, and the period of revolution $T$. Assume that the masses of two stars are equal. Find the mass from the conditions.
Answer:
This method allows us to find the total mass of the system in laboratory by knowing the distance between stars and the period. Kepler's third law indicates the relationship between the period and distance.
\[
\frac{T^2}{a^3} = \frac{4\pi^2}{G(m_1+m_2)}
\]
where $G$ is the gravitational constant. Since $m_1+m_2 = 2m$, we can solve for the mass.
\[
m = \frac{2\pi^2 a^3}{GT^2}
\]
This gives the mass of one star.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Consider a binary star system to find the mass of the stars. The distance between them is found out to be $a$, and the period of revolution $T$. Assume that the masses of two stars are equal. Find the mass from the conditions.
Answer:
This method allows us to find the total mass of the system in laboratory by knowing the distance between stars and the period. Kepler's third law indicates the relationship between the period and distance.
\[
\frac{T^2}{a^3} = \frac{4\pi^2}{G(m_1+m_2)}
\]
where $G$ is the gravitational constant. Since $m_1+m_2 = 2m$, we can solve for the mass.
\[
m = \frac{2\pi^2 a^3}{GT^2}
\]
This gives the mass of one star.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Thursday, February 25, 2016
Inequality of trigonometric functions
Question:
(1) The range of $x$ is: $0^o \leqq x \leqq 180^o$. Solve $\cos^4 x > \sin^4 x$.
(2) The range of $x$ is: $0^o \leqq x < 360^o$. Solve $\cos 2x + \sin x < 0$.
Answer:
(1) Arrange the equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\cos^4 x - \sin^4 x &>& 0 \\
(\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x)(\cos^2 x - \sin^2 x) &>& 0 \\
(1)(\cos x + \sin x)(\cos x - \sin x) &>& 0
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, we can state
\begin{eqnarray}
& & (\cos x + \sin x)>0 \ \mathrm{and} \ (\cos x - \sin x)>0 \\
\mathrm{or} & & \nonumber \\
& & (\cos x + \sin x)<0 \ \mathrm{and} \ (\cos x - \sin x)<0
\end{eqnarray}
In case of (4), within the $x$ range, when $\cos x > \sin x$, $0^o \leqq x < 45^o$. When $\cos x + \sin x > 0$, $0^o \leqq x < 135^o$ since the solution of $\cos x + \sin x = 0$ is $x=135^o$. Therefore, one range is
\[
0^o \leqq x < 45^o
\]
In case of (5), when $\cos x < \sin x$, $45^o < x \leqq 180^o$. When $\cos x + \sin x < 0$, $135^o < x \leqq 180^o$. Therefore, the other range is
\[
135^o < x \leqq 180^o
\]
Thus, the answer is $0^o \leqq x < 45^o$ and $135^o < x \leqq 180^o$.
(2) Use the double angle formula, $\cos 2x = 1-2\sin^2 x$ to rearrange the given expression.
\begin{eqnarray}
1-2\sin^2 x +\sin x &<& 0 \\
2\sin^2 x -\sin x-1 &>& 0 \\
(2\sin x + 1)(\sin x -1) &>& 0
\end{eqnarray}
$\sin x -1$ is always negative or zero, so the condition must be only
\[
2\sin x + 1 <0 \ \mathrm{and} \ \sin x -1<0
\]
Then, $2\sin x + 1 <0$ determines the range. Namely, $\sin x < -\frac{1}{2}$. For $\sin x = -\frac{1}{2}$, $x= -30^o$ or $210^o$. Therefore, the range must be
\[
210^o < x < 330^o
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
(1) The range of $x$ is: $0^o \leqq x \leqq 180^o$. Solve $\cos^4 x > \sin^4 x$.
(2) The range of $x$ is: $0^o \leqq x < 360^o$. Solve $\cos 2x + \sin x < 0$.
Answer:
(1) Arrange the equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\cos^4 x - \sin^4 x &>& 0 \\
(\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x)(\cos^2 x - \sin^2 x) &>& 0 \\
(1)(\cos x + \sin x)(\cos x - \sin x) &>& 0
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, we can state
\begin{eqnarray}
& & (\cos x + \sin x)>0 \ \mathrm{and} \ (\cos x - \sin x)>0 \\
\mathrm{or} & & \nonumber \\
& & (\cos x + \sin x)<0 \ \mathrm{and} \ (\cos x - \sin x)<0
\end{eqnarray}
In case of (4), within the $x$ range, when $\cos x > \sin x$, $0^o \leqq x < 45^o$. When $\cos x + \sin x > 0$, $0^o \leqq x < 135^o$ since the solution of $\cos x + \sin x = 0$ is $x=135^o$. Therefore, one range is
\[
0^o \leqq x < 45^o
\]
In case of (5), when $\cos x < \sin x$, $45^o < x \leqq 180^o$. When $\cos x + \sin x < 0$, $135^o < x \leqq 180^o$. Therefore, the other range is
\[
135^o < x \leqq 180^o
\]
Thus, the answer is $0^o \leqq x < 45^o$ and $135^o < x \leqq 180^o$.
(2) Use the double angle formula, $\cos 2x = 1-2\sin^2 x$ to rearrange the given expression.
\begin{eqnarray}
1-2\sin^2 x +\sin x &<& 0 \\
2\sin^2 x -\sin x-1 &>& 0 \\
(2\sin x + 1)(\sin x -1) &>& 0
\end{eqnarray}
$\sin x -1$ is always negative or zero, so the condition must be only
\[
2\sin x + 1 <0 \ \mathrm{and} \ \sin x -1<0
\]
Then, $2\sin x + 1 <0$ determines the range. Namely, $\sin x < -\frac{1}{2}$. For $\sin x = -\frac{1}{2}$, $x= -30^o$ or $210^o$. Therefore, the range must be
\[
210^o < x < 330^o
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Rigid body: A circular cylinder on an inclined plane
Question:
A circular cylinder of radius $r$ rolls down on an inclined plane from height $h$. Compare the velocities at the bottom of this object with that of a point object.
Answer:
The moment of inertia of a cylinder (disk) is given by
\[
I = \frac{1}{2}mr^2
\]
The derivation is provided on this webpage: http://hirophysics.com/Study/moment-of-inertia.pdf Use conservation energy. For this cylinder, we need to include the rotational kinetic energy in addition to linear kinetic energy. We suppose that the entire potential energy is transferred into all the kinetic energy.
\[
\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh
\]
Since $\omega=\frac{v}{r}$ and $I = \frac{1}{2}mr^2$, we substitute it in the above, then solve for the terminal velocity.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& &\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}mr^2\right)\left(\frac{v}{r}\right)^2 = mgh \\
& & \frac{3}{4}mv^2=mgh \\
& & v_C = \sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}
\end{eqnarray*}
$v_C$ is the final velocity of the cylinder. Let us find the final velocity of a point object. Likewise, we use conservation of energy, but the rotational kinetic energy is excluded.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& &\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh \\
& & v_P = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{eqnarray*}
Now compare them.
\[
\frac{v_C}{v_P}=\frac{\sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}}{\sqrt{2gh}}=\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\sim 0.816
\]
The final velocity of the cylinder is slower than that of point object by the factor of 0.816.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A circular cylinder of radius $r$ rolls down on an inclined plane from height $h$. Compare the velocities at the bottom of this object with that of a point object.
Answer:
The moment of inertia of a cylinder (disk) is given by
\[
I = \frac{1}{2}mr^2
\]
The derivation is provided on this webpage: http://hirophysics.com/Study/moment-of-inertia.pdf Use conservation energy. For this cylinder, we need to include the rotational kinetic energy in addition to linear kinetic energy. We suppose that the entire potential energy is transferred into all the kinetic energy.
\[
\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh
\]
Since $\omega=\frac{v}{r}$ and $I = \frac{1}{2}mr^2$, we substitute it in the above, then solve for the terminal velocity.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& &\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}mr^2\right)\left(\frac{v}{r}\right)^2 = mgh \\
& & \frac{3}{4}mv^2=mgh \\
& & v_C = \sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}
\end{eqnarray*}
$v_C$ is the final velocity of the cylinder. Let us find the final velocity of a point object. Likewise, we use conservation of energy, but the rotational kinetic energy is excluded.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& &\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh \\
& & v_P = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{eqnarray*}
Now compare them.
\[
\frac{v_C}{v_P}=\frac{\sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}}{\sqrt{2gh}}=\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\sim 0.816
\]
The final velocity of the cylinder is slower than that of point object by the factor of 0.816.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Magnetic field in the hydrogen atom with Bohr theory
Question:
Use Bohr theory. Find the magnetic field by electron's exerting at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom. The radius of hydrogen is assumed to be 0.529 $\times$ 10$^{-10}$ m.
Answer:
We can assume that the electron moves around the nucleus as making a circular current. According to the Biot-Savart Law, we have the magnetic field of a circular current as
\[
B_z = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi}\int^{2\pi r}_{0}\frac{dl}{r^2}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2r}
\]
Now, we need to obtain the current. The electric current is defined by $I=\frac{Q}{T}$. The charge of an electron or a proton is 1.61 $\times$ 10$^{-19}$ C. In order to get the current, we have to find the time period. That is
\[
T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}
\]
where $v$ is the tangential velocity of the electron. So the current is expressed by
\[
I = \frac{Q}{\frac{2\pi r}{v}}
\]
In terms of the classical theory, the centripetal force is equal to the Coulomb force. Then, solve for the velocity.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{mv^2}{r}&=&\frac{ke^2}{r^2} \\
v&=&\sqrt{\frac{ke^2}{mr}} \\
&=& \sqrt{\frac{8.99 \times 10^9 (1.61 \times 10^{-19})^2}{9.11 \times 10^{-31}\cdot 0.529 \times 10^{-10}}} \\
&=& 2.20 \times 10^6 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, we calculate the current.
\[
I=\frac{Q}{\frac{2\pi r}{v}}=\frac{1.61 \times 10^{-19}}{\frac{2\pi \times 0.529\times 10^{-10}}{2.20\times 10^6}}=1.07\times 10^{-3} \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Then, we can find the magnetic field.
\[
B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2r}=\frac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times1.07\times 10^{-3}}{2 \times 0.529\times 10^{-10}}= 12.7 \ \mathrm{T}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Use Bohr theory. Find the magnetic field by electron's exerting at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom. The radius of hydrogen is assumed to be 0.529 $\times$ 10$^{-10}$ m.
Answer:
We can assume that the electron moves around the nucleus as making a circular current. According to the Biot-Savart Law, we have the magnetic field of a circular current as
\[
B_z = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi}\int^{2\pi r}_{0}\frac{dl}{r^2}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2r}
\]
Now, we need to obtain the current. The electric current is defined by $I=\frac{Q}{T}$. The charge of an electron or a proton is 1.61 $\times$ 10$^{-19}$ C. In order to get the current, we have to find the time period. That is
\[
T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}
\]
where $v$ is the tangential velocity of the electron. So the current is expressed by
\[
I = \frac{Q}{\frac{2\pi r}{v}}
\]
In terms of the classical theory, the centripetal force is equal to the Coulomb force. Then, solve for the velocity.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{mv^2}{r}&=&\frac{ke^2}{r^2} \\
v&=&\sqrt{\frac{ke^2}{mr}} \\
&=& \sqrt{\frac{8.99 \times 10^9 (1.61 \times 10^{-19})^2}{9.11 \times 10^{-31}\cdot 0.529 \times 10^{-10}}} \\
&=& 2.20 \times 10^6 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, we calculate the current.
\[
I=\frac{Q}{\frac{2\pi r}{v}}=\frac{1.61 \times 10^{-19}}{\frac{2\pi \times 0.529\times 10^{-10}}{2.20\times 10^6}}=1.07\times 10^{-3} \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Then, we can find the magnetic field.
\[
B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2r}=\frac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times1.07\times 10^{-3}}{2 \times 0.529\times 10^{-10}}= 12.7 \ \mathrm{T}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Motion with mass decreasing: A rocket launch
Question:
A rocket is launched in a constant gravity, 9.80 m/s$^2$. The initial velocity is 400 m/s, and the burn time is 100 seconds. If the exhaust velocity is 2000 m/s, and the mass decreases by a factor of three; namely, the current mass divided by the original mass is equal to $\frac{1}{3}$, find the final velocity of the rocket.
Answer:
The equation of motion is given as
\begin{equation}
m\frac{dv}{dt}=-mg-u \frac{dm}{dt}
\end{equation}
where $u$ is the exhaust velocity. Divide both sides
by the mass, $m$.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv}{dt}=-g-u \frac{dm}{dt}\frac{1}{m}
\end{equation}
Multiply $dt$ by both sides. (This manipulation is not for mathematicians.)
\begin{equation}
dv=-gdt - u \frac{dm}{m}
\end{equation}
Integrate this.
\begin{equation}
\int^{v}_{v_0} dv=\int^{t}_0 -gdt - u \int^{m}_{m_0}\frac{dm}{m}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
v-v_0 = -gt - u \ln \frac{m}{m_0}
\end{equation}
Plug in the numbers.
\begin{equation}
v = 400 - 9.80 \cdot 100 - 2000 \ln \frac{1}{3}=1620 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A rocket is launched in a constant gravity, 9.80 m/s$^2$. The initial velocity is 400 m/s, and the burn time is 100 seconds. If the exhaust velocity is 2000 m/s, and the mass decreases by a factor of three; namely, the current mass divided by the original mass is equal to $\frac{1}{3}$, find the final velocity of the rocket.
Answer:
The equation of motion is given as
\begin{equation}
m\frac{dv}{dt}=-mg-u \frac{dm}{dt}
\end{equation}
where $u$ is the exhaust velocity. Divide both sides
by the mass, $m$.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv}{dt}=-g-u \frac{dm}{dt}\frac{1}{m}
\end{equation}
Multiply $dt$ by both sides. (This manipulation is not for mathematicians.)
\begin{equation}
dv=-gdt - u \frac{dm}{m}
\end{equation}
Integrate this.
\begin{equation}
\int^{v}_{v_0} dv=\int^{t}_0 -gdt - u \int^{m}_{m_0}\frac{dm}{m}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
v-v_0 = -gt - u \ln \frac{m}{m_0}
\end{equation}
Plug in the numbers.
\begin{equation}
v = 400 - 9.80 \cdot 100 - 2000 \ln \frac{1}{3}=1620 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Wednesday, February 24, 2016
Projectile motion: With air resistance proportional to the velocity
Question:
A ball is thrown and it tracks a projectile near the Earth's surface subject to a resistive force due to air, $f_R = -bv$, which is proportional to its velocity. Find the velocities, positions for $x$ and $y$ directions; and the time of flight.
Answer:
Newton's second law shows
\begin{eqnarray}
mv'_x &=& -bv_x \\
mv'_y &=& -mg-bv_y
\end{eqnarray}
Solve the equation of motion in $x$ direction.
\begin{equation}
v_x = v_{0x}e^{-\frac{b}{m}t} \quad \rightarrow \quad v_x = v_{0x}e^{-\gamma t}
\end{equation}
where $\gamma=\frac{b}{m}$.
Integrate it again with respect to time.
\begin{eqnarray}
x &=& v_{0x}\int e^{-\gamma t} dt \\
&=& v_{0x} \left[ -\frac{1}{\gamma}e^{-\gamma t}\right]^t_0 \\
&=& \frac{v_{0x}}{\gamma}(1-e^{-\gamma t})
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise, we can integrate the $y$ component of the equation.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv_y}{dt} = -g - \gamma v_y
\end{equation}
Then, we separate the terms for $v$ and the other.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv_y}{dt} = - \gamma \left(v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)
\end{equation}
Now, divide it by $v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}$ and multiply by $dt$ although this statement is not recommended for talking to mathematicians.
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{dv}{v_y + \frac{g}{\gamma}} = -\gamma dt \\
& & \ln\left| v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}\right| = -\gamma t + C \\
& & v_y + \frac{g}{\gamma} = e^{-\gamma t + C}\\
& & v_y = Ce^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}
\end{eqnarray}
Consider the initial condition: When $t=0$, $v_y = v_{0y}$. Therefore, $C=v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}$. We now have
\begin{equation}
v_y = \left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}
\end{equation}
Integrate it again with time.
\begin{eqnarray}
y &=& \int \left\{\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}\right\} dt \\
&=& \left[ -\frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{gt}{\gamma}\right]^t_0 \\
&=& \frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)(1-e^{-\gamma t}) - \frac{gt}{\gamma}
\end{eqnarray}
When $y=0$, we can obtain the entire time of flight. Thus,
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{gt}{\gamma} &=& \frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)(1-e^{-\gamma t}) \\
\frac{g}{\gamma} &=& \left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} \\
\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} &=& \frac{g}{\gamma\left( v_{0y}+ \frac{g}{\gamma}\right)} \\
\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} &=& \frac{1}{1+ \frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}}
\end{eqnarray}
Expand both sides by assuming that $\gamma \ll 1$.
\begin{equation}
{\textstyle 1-\frac{1}{2!}\gamma t+\frac{1}{3!}(\gamma t)^2-\frac{1}{4!}(\gamma t)^3+\cdots = 1-\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}+\left(\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}\right)^2-\left(\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}\right)^3 + \cdots}
\end{equation}
Let $G=\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}$, and expand $\gamma t$ in terms of polynomial of $G$. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\gamma t=a_1 G+a_2 G^2 + a_3 G^3 \cdots
\end{equation}
Plug this in the left hand side of (21). Let us take it up to $a_2$ and compare them with the right hand side in terms of $G^n$. Then, we have $a_1 = 2$ and $a_2 = -\frac{2}{3}$. Again, plug this in (22).
\begin{equation}
\gamma t = \frac{2v_{0y} \gamma}{g}-\frac{2}{3}\frac{\gamma^2 v_{0y}^2}{g^2}+\cdots
\end{equation}
Therefore the time $t=T$ is approximately given as follows:
\[
T = \frac{2v_{0y}}{g}-\frac{2}{3}\frac{\gamma v_{0y}^2}{g^2}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A ball is thrown and it tracks a projectile near the Earth's surface subject to a resistive force due to air, $f_R = -bv$, which is proportional to its velocity. Find the velocities, positions for $x$ and $y$ directions; and the time of flight.
Answer:
Newton's second law shows
\begin{eqnarray}
mv'_x &=& -bv_x \\
mv'_y &=& -mg-bv_y
\end{eqnarray}
Solve the equation of motion in $x$ direction.
\begin{equation}
v_x = v_{0x}e^{-\frac{b}{m}t} \quad \rightarrow \quad v_x = v_{0x}e^{-\gamma t}
\end{equation}
where $\gamma=\frac{b}{m}$.
Integrate it again with respect to time.
\begin{eqnarray}
x &=& v_{0x}\int e^{-\gamma t} dt \\
&=& v_{0x} \left[ -\frac{1}{\gamma}e^{-\gamma t}\right]^t_0 \\
&=& \frac{v_{0x}}{\gamma}(1-e^{-\gamma t})
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise, we can integrate the $y$ component of the equation.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv_y}{dt} = -g - \gamma v_y
\end{equation}
Then, we separate the terms for $v$ and the other.
\begin{equation}
\frac{dv_y}{dt} = - \gamma \left(v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)
\end{equation}
Now, divide it by $v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}$ and multiply by $dt$ although this statement is not recommended for talking to mathematicians.
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{dv}{v_y + \frac{g}{\gamma}} = -\gamma dt \\
& & \ln\left| v_y +\frac{g}{\gamma}\right| = -\gamma t + C \\
& & v_y + \frac{g}{\gamma} = e^{-\gamma t + C}\\
& & v_y = Ce^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}
\end{eqnarray}
Consider the initial condition: When $t=0$, $v_y = v_{0y}$. Therefore, $C=v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}$. We now have
\begin{equation}
v_y = \left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}
\end{equation}
Integrate it again with time.
\begin{eqnarray}
y &=& \int \left\{\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{g}{\gamma}\right\} dt \\
&=& \left[ -\frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)e^{-\gamma t} - \frac{gt}{\gamma}\right]^t_0 \\
&=& \frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)(1-e^{-\gamma t}) - \frac{gt}{\gamma}
\end{eqnarray}
When $y=0$, we can obtain the entire time of flight. Thus,
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{gt}{\gamma} &=& \frac{1}{\gamma}\left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)(1-e^{-\gamma t}) \\
\frac{g}{\gamma} &=& \left(v_{0y}+\frac{g}{\gamma}\right)\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} \\
\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} &=& \frac{g}{\gamma\left( v_{0y}+ \frac{g}{\gamma}\right)} \\
\frac{1-e^{-\gamma t}}{\gamma t} &=& \frac{1}{1+ \frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}}
\end{eqnarray}
Expand both sides by assuming that $\gamma \ll 1$.
\begin{equation}
{\textstyle 1-\frac{1}{2!}\gamma t+\frac{1}{3!}(\gamma t)^2-\frac{1}{4!}(\gamma t)^3+\cdots = 1-\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}+\left(\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}\right)^2-\left(\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}\right)^3 + \cdots}
\end{equation}
Let $G=\frac{\gamma v_{0y}}{g}$, and expand $\gamma t$ in terms of polynomial of $G$. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\gamma t=a_1 G+a_2 G^2 + a_3 G^3 \cdots
\end{equation}
Plug this in the left hand side of (21). Let us take it up to $a_2$ and compare them with the right hand side in terms of $G^n$. Then, we have $a_1 = 2$ and $a_2 = -\frac{2}{3}$. Again, plug this in (22).
\begin{equation}
\gamma t = \frac{2v_{0y} \gamma}{g}-\frac{2}{3}\frac{\gamma^2 v_{0y}^2}{g^2}+\cdots
\end{equation}
Therefore the time $t=T$ is approximately given as follows:
\[
T = \frac{2v_{0y}}{g}-\frac{2}{3}\frac{\gamma v_{0y}^2}{g^2}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Tuesday, February 23, 2016
Natural frequency: Two objects with a spring
Question:
Two objects which have equal masses, $m$, are connected with a spring whose force constant is $k$. The objects are placed on a frictionless surface and oscillating without external forces. Find the natural frequency of this motion.
Answer:
$x_1$ and $x_2$ are the displacements of each object from the natural length. The displacement, $x$, is the one for the spring, so $x=x_1-x_2$ for object 1 and $-x=x_2-x_1$ for object 2. Set up the equations of motion:
\begin{eqnarray}
mx_1'' &=& -kx \\
mx_2'' &=& kx
\end{eqnarray}
Subtract (2) from (1).
\begin{equation}
m(x_1''-x_2'') = -2kx
\end{equation}
Since $x'' = x_1''-x_2''$, we have
\begin{equation}
mx'' + 2kx = 0 \quad \rightarrow \quad x'' + \frac{2k}{m} = 0
\end{equation}
The solution of this differential equation is
\begin{equation}
x = A\sin\left(\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}} t\right) + B\cos\left(\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}} t\right)
\end{equation}
where $\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}}$ is the natural frequency of this spring motion.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Two objects which have equal masses, $m$, are connected with a spring whose force constant is $k$. The objects are placed on a frictionless surface and oscillating without external forces. Find the natural frequency of this motion.
Answer:
$x_1$ and $x_2$ are the displacements of each object from the natural length. The displacement, $x$, is the one for the spring, so $x=x_1-x_2$ for object 1 and $-x=x_2-x_1$ for object 2. Set up the equations of motion:
\begin{eqnarray}
mx_1'' &=& -kx \\
mx_2'' &=& kx
\end{eqnarray}
Subtract (2) from (1).
\begin{equation}
m(x_1''-x_2'') = -2kx
\end{equation}
Since $x'' = x_1''-x_2''$, we have
\begin{equation}
mx'' + 2kx = 0 \quad \rightarrow \quad x'' + \frac{2k}{m} = 0
\end{equation}
The solution of this differential equation is
\begin{equation}
x = A\sin\left(\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}} t\right) + B\cos\left(\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}} t\right)
\end{equation}
where $\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}}$ is the natural frequency of this spring motion.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Uncertainty principle: Time and energy with Delta baryon
Question:
The Delta baryon, $\Delta$, is known as the lowest nucleon resonance that has a mass of 1232 MeV/c$^2$ and a width of 120 MeV/c$^2$. Its spin and isospin are equally 3/2. Find the lifetime of this particle.
Answer:
According to the uncertainty principle between time and energy, we have
\[
\Delta E \cdot \Delta t \geqq \frac{\hbar}{2}
\]
The multiplication of uncertainties is greater than or equal to a half of the reduced Planck constant (or Dirac's constant). Solve for the time and plug in numbers. In this unit system, the constant $\hbar$ should be $\hbar \times c$ = 197.33 MeV fm, where fm is 10$^{-15}$ m. Therefore,
\[
\Delta t \sim \frac{\hbar c}{2\Delta E c} = \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{MeV \ fm}{MeV / c}} = \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{fm}{c}} \\
= \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{10^{-15}m}{3.00 \times 10^8 m/s}} \\
= 2.74 \times 10^{-24} \ \mathrm{s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The Delta baryon, $\Delta$, is known as the lowest nucleon resonance that has a mass of 1232 MeV/c$^2$ and a width of 120 MeV/c$^2$. Its spin and isospin are equally 3/2. Find the lifetime of this particle.
Answer:
According to the uncertainty principle between time and energy, we have
\[
\Delta E \cdot \Delta t \geqq \frac{\hbar}{2}
\]
The multiplication of uncertainties is greater than or equal to a half of the reduced Planck constant (or Dirac's constant). Solve for the time and plug in numbers. In this unit system, the constant $\hbar$ should be $\hbar \times c$ = 197.33 MeV fm, where fm is 10$^{-15}$ m. Therefore,
\[
\Delta t \sim \frac{\hbar c}{2\Delta E c} = \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{MeV \ fm}{MeV / c}} = \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{fm}{c}} \\
= \frac{197.33}{2 \cdot 120} \ \mathrm{\frac{10^{-15}m}{3.00 \times 10^8 m/s}} \\
= 2.74 \times 10^{-24} \ \mathrm{s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Monday, February 22, 2016
Special theory of relativity: Time dilation in an airplane
Question:
Physicists conduct an experiment to measure time dilation of an atomic clock in a flying airplane. If the velocity of the airplane is 960 km/h, find the time dilated of the atomic clock from the laboratory flame. (You do not need to consider the effect from the general theory of relativity.)
Answer:
We consider one direction of motion, say, $x$ direction. The Lorentz transformations for the displacement and time are
\begin{eqnarray}
x' &=& \frac{-vt+x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}} \\
t' &=& \frac{t-(v/c^2)x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}
\end{eqnarray}
where $\beta=v^2/c^2$. Suppose that the clock is placed at the origin of moving flame, $S'$. Then, one measures the time in laboratory flame, $S$. The origin in $S'$ indicates that $x'=0$. Thus, we have
\begin{equation}
0 = \frac{-vt+x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}} \quad \rightarrow \quad x = vt
\end{equation}
Plug it in the transformation for time.
\begin{equation}
t' = \frac{t-(v/c^2)(vt)}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=\frac{t(1-\beta^2)}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=\sqrt{1-\beta^2}t
\end{equation}
Since $v\ll c \rightarrow \beta \ll 1$, we can use the approximated expression with a Taylor expansion;
\[
t' = \left(1-\frac{1}{2}\beta^2\right)t
\]
Now, convert the velocity of the airplane into m/s. Note that 1 km = 1000 m and 1 hour = 3600 s.
\[
960 \ \mathrm{km/h} = 960 \times 1000 \div 3600 = 266.7 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\]
Therefore, we have the time dilation compared with the lab frame.
\[
t'= \left\{1-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{266.7}{3.00\times 10^8}\right)^2\right\}t=(1-3.95\times 10^{-13})t
\]
This means: While one second elapses in lab frame, the clock in the airplane only elapses $1-3.95\times 10^{-13}$ seconds.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Physicists conduct an experiment to measure time dilation of an atomic clock in a flying airplane. If the velocity of the airplane is 960 km/h, find the time dilated of the atomic clock from the laboratory flame. (You do not need to consider the effect from the general theory of relativity.)
Answer:
We consider one direction of motion, say, $x$ direction. The Lorentz transformations for the displacement and time are
\begin{eqnarray}
x' &=& \frac{-vt+x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}} \\
t' &=& \frac{t-(v/c^2)x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}
\end{eqnarray}
where $\beta=v^2/c^2$. Suppose that the clock is placed at the origin of moving flame, $S'$. Then, one measures the time in laboratory flame, $S$. The origin in $S'$ indicates that $x'=0$. Thus, we have
\begin{equation}
0 = \frac{-vt+x}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}} \quad \rightarrow \quad x = vt
\end{equation}
Plug it in the transformation for time.
\begin{equation}
t' = \frac{t-(v/c^2)(vt)}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=\frac{t(1-\beta^2)}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=\sqrt{1-\beta^2}t
\end{equation}
Since $v\ll c \rightarrow \beta \ll 1$, we can use the approximated expression with a Taylor expansion;
\[
t' = \left(1-\frac{1}{2}\beta^2\right)t
\]
Now, convert the velocity of the airplane into m/s. Note that 1 km = 1000 m and 1 hour = 3600 s.
\[
960 \ \mathrm{km/h} = 960 \times 1000 \div 3600 = 266.7 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\]
Therefore, we have the time dilation compared with the lab frame.
\[
t'= \left\{1-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{266.7}{3.00\times 10^8}\right)^2\right\}t=(1-3.95\times 10^{-13})t
\]
This means: While one second elapses in lab frame, the clock in the airplane only elapses $1-3.95\times 10^{-13}$ seconds.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A special type of differential equation III
Question:
Solve $(x^2\cos x - y)dx + xdy = 0$.
Answer:
Rewrite the equation.
\[
\frac{dy}{dx}-\frac{y}{x}=-x\cos x
\]
When the right hand side is zero, the solution is $y=Cx$. Using variation of constants, we make $C$ as a function of $x$. Namely, $y=C(x)x$ and plug it in the above equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{d(C(x)x)}{dx}-\frac{C(x)x}{x}=-x\cos x \\
& & C'(x)x+C(x)-C(x)=-x\cos x \\
& & C'(x) = - \cos x \\
& & C(x) = - \sin x + C
\end{eqnarray}
We know $C(x)=\frac{y}{x}$, so
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{y}{x} = - \sin x + C \\
& & y = x(-\sin x + C)
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Solve $(x^2\cos x - y)dx + xdy = 0$.
Answer:
Rewrite the equation.
\[
\frac{dy}{dx}-\frac{y}{x}=-x\cos x
\]
When the right hand side is zero, the solution is $y=Cx$. Using variation of constants, we make $C$ as a function of $x$. Namely, $y=C(x)x$ and plug it in the above equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{d(C(x)x)}{dx}-\frac{C(x)x}{x}=-x\cos x \\
& & C'(x)x+C(x)-C(x)=-x\cos x \\
& & C'(x) = - \cos x \\
& & C(x) = - \sin x + C
\end{eqnarray}
We know $C(x)=\frac{y}{x}$, so
\begin{eqnarray}
& & \frac{y}{x} = - \sin x + C \\
& & y = x(-\sin x + C)
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A special type of differential equation II
Question:
(1) Solve
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+y=0$
(2) Solve
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+y=x\ln x$ by using the result from (1).
Answer:
(1) The differential equation can be expressed as
\[
x\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{dx}{dx}y =0, \qquad \rightarrow x'y + xy' =0
\]
Namely,
\[
\frac{d(xy)}{dx}=0 \qquad \rightarrow xy=C \quad \rightarrow \rightarrow y=\frac{C}{x}
\]
(2) Use variation of constants. When $x \ln x = 0$, $y=\frac{C(x)}{x}$. Then, plug it in the original equation.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& & x\frac{d}{dx}\frac{C(x)}{x}+\frac{C(x)}{x}=x \ln x \\
& & \frac{xC'(x)-C(x)}{x^2}x+\frac{C(x)}{x}=x\ln x \\
& & C'(x) = x \ln x
\end{eqnarray*}
Integrate both sides.
\begin{eqnarray*}
C(x) &=& \int x\ln x dx \\
C(x) &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \int \left(\frac{1}{x} \frac{x^2}{2}\right)dx \\
C(x) &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \frac{x^2}{4}+ C
\end{eqnarray*}
Since $C=xy$, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
xy &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \frac{x^2}{4} + C \\
y &=& \frac{x}{2}\ln x - \frac{x}{4} + \frac{C}{x}
\end{eqnarray*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
(1) Solve
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+y=0$
(2) Solve
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+y=x\ln x$ by using the result from (1).
Answer:
(1) The differential equation can be expressed as
\[
x\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{dx}{dx}y =0, \qquad \rightarrow x'y + xy' =0
\]
Namely,
\[
\frac{d(xy)}{dx}=0 \qquad \rightarrow xy=C \quad \rightarrow \rightarrow y=\frac{C}{x}
\]
(2) Use variation of constants. When $x \ln x = 0$, $y=\frac{C(x)}{x}$. Then, plug it in the original equation.
\begin{eqnarray*}
& & x\frac{d}{dx}\frac{C(x)}{x}+\frac{C(x)}{x}=x \ln x \\
& & \frac{xC'(x)-C(x)}{x^2}x+\frac{C(x)}{x}=x\ln x \\
& & C'(x) = x \ln x
\end{eqnarray*}
Integrate both sides.
\begin{eqnarray*}
C(x) &=& \int x\ln x dx \\
C(x) &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \int \left(\frac{1}{x} \frac{x^2}{2}\right)dx \\
C(x) &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \frac{x^2}{4}+ C
\end{eqnarray*}
Since $C=xy$, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
xy &=& \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \frac{x^2}{4} + C \\
y &=& \frac{x}{2}\ln x - \frac{x}{4} + \frac{C}{x}
\end{eqnarray*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A special type of differential equation I
Question:
(1) Find the general solution of
$\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)y=Q(x)$, where $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are functions of $x$.
(2) Solve the following differential equation:
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=\sin x$
Answer:
(1) Multiply $e^{\int P(x)dx}$ by both sides.
\[
e^{\int P(x)dx}\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}y=e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)
\]
We can notice that the left hand side can be modified as follows:
\[
\frac{d}{dx}\left(e^{\int P(x)dx}y\right) = e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)
\]
Integrate both sides in terms of $x$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\int P(x)dx}y &=& \int e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)dx + C \\
y &=& e^{-\int P(x)dx}\left(\int e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)dx + C \right)
\end{eqnarray*}
The other solution of (1) When $Q(x) = 0$, the solution is $y=Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}$. Therefore, when $Q(x) \neq 0$, the constant $C$ can be a function of $x$ and then find the $C(x)$. $y=Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}$ can be plugged in the original equation:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\frac{d}{dx}Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'e^{-\int P(x)dx}-CP(x)e^{-\int P(x)dx}+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'e^{-\int P(x)dx}-P(x)y+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'&=&Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx} \\
C(x) &=& \int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C
\end{eqnarray*}
Since $C(x)=e^{\int P(x)dx}y$, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\int P(x)dx}y &=& \int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C \\
y &=& e^{-\int P(x)dx}\left(\int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C \right)
\end{eqnarray*}
(2) The given equation can be modified as
\[
\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{2y}{x}=\frac{\sin x}{x}
\]
From the previous discussion, $P(x)=2/x$ and $Q(x)=\sin x/x$. So plug them in to the previous result.
\[
y = e^{-\int \frac{2}{x}dx}\left(\int \frac{\sin x}{x}e^{\int \frac{2}{x}dx}dx+C \right)
\]
Think about the function $f(x)=e^{-\int \frac{2}{x}dx}$. This becomes $f(x)=e^{-2\ln x}$. In order to simplify it, take log of both sides.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\ln f(x) &=& \ln e^{-2\ln x} \\
\ln f(x) &=& -2\ln x \\
\ln f(x) &=& \ln x^{-2} \\
f(x) &=& x^{-2}
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, we have
\[
y = \frac{1}{x^2}\left(\int \frac{\sin x}{x}x^2 dx+C \right)
\]
For the final steps,
\begin{eqnarray}
y &=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left(\int x\sin x dx+C \right) \\
&=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left([-x\cos x + \int\cos x dx]+C \right) \\
&=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left(-x\cos x + \sin x + C \right)
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
(1) Find the general solution of
$\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)y=Q(x)$, where $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are functions of $x$.
(2) Solve the following differential equation:
$x\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=\sin x$
Answer:
(1) Multiply $e^{\int P(x)dx}$ by both sides.
\[
e^{\int P(x)dx}\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}y=e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)
\]
We can notice that the left hand side can be modified as follows:
\[
\frac{d}{dx}\left(e^{\int P(x)dx}y\right) = e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)
\]
Integrate both sides in terms of $x$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\int P(x)dx}y &=& \int e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)dx + C \\
y &=& e^{-\int P(x)dx}\left(\int e^{\int P(x)dx}Q(x)dx + C \right)
\end{eqnarray*}
The other solution of (1) When $Q(x) = 0$, the solution is $y=Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}$. Therefore, when $Q(x) \neq 0$, the constant $C$ can be a function of $x$ and then find the $C(x)$. $y=Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}$ can be plugged in the original equation:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\frac{d}{dx}Ce^{-\int P(x)dx}+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'e^{-\int P(x)dx}-CP(x)e^{-\int P(x)dx}+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'e^{-\int P(x)dx}-P(x)y+P(x)y&=&Q(x) \\
C'&=&Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx} \\
C(x) &=& \int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C
\end{eqnarray*}
Since $C(x)=e^{\int P(x)dx}y$, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\int P(x)dx}y &=& \int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C \\
y &=& e^{-\int P(x)dx}\left(\int Q(x)e^{\int P(x)dx}dx+C \right)
\end{eqnarray*}
(2) The given equation can be modified as
\[
\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{2y}{x}=\frac{\sin x}{x}
\]
From the previous discussion, $P(x)=2/x$ and $Q(x)=\sin x/x$. So plug them in to the previous result.
\[
y = e^{-\int \frac{2}{x}dx}\left(\int \frac{\sin x}{x}e^{\int \frac{2}{x}dx}dx+C \right)
\]
Think about the function $f(x)=e^{-\int \frac{2}{x}dx}$. This becomes $f(x)=e^{-2\ln x}$. In order to simplify it, take log of both sides.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\ln f(x) &=& \ln e^{-2\ln x} \\
\ln f(x) &=& -2\ln x \\
\ln f(x) &=& \ln x^{-2} \\
f(x) &=& x^{-2}
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, we have
\[
y = \frac{1}{x^2}\left(\int \frac{\sin x}{x}x^2 dx+C \right)
\]
For the final steps,
\begin{eqnarray}
y &=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left(\int x\sin x dx+C \right) \\
&=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left([-x\cos x + \int\cos x dx]+C \right) \\
&=& \frac{1}{x^2}\left(-x\cos x + \sin x + C \right)
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Sunday, February 21, 2016
A rope unwounded from a cylindrical wheel
Question:
A cylindrical wheel with radius of 2-m rotates on a fixed frictionless horizontal axis. The moment of inertia of the wheel is 10.0 kg m$^2$. A constant tension on the rope exerted around the rim is 40.0 N. If the wheel starts from rest at $t=0$ s, calculate the length of the rope unwounded after 3.00 seconds.
Answer:
The equation of motion for rotation is
\[
\sum \tau = rF = I\alpha
\]
where $\tau$ is the torque, $F$ is the tension, $I$ is the moment of inertia, and $\alpha$ is the angular acceleration. Now, solve for the angular acceleration.
\begin{equation}
\alpha = \frac{rT}{I} = \frac{2\cdot 40}{10} = 8.00 \ \mathrm{rad/s^2}
\end{equation}
According to angular kinematics, we can calculate the angular displacement.
\begin{equation}
\theta = \theta_0 + \omega_0 t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2 = 0+0+\frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2 =\frac{1}{2}\cdot 8.00 \cdot 3^2 = 36.0 \ \mathrm{rad}
\end{equation}
The linear displacement is
\[
d = r\theta = 2.0 \cdot 36.0 = 72.0 \ \mathrm{m}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A cylindrical wheel with radius of 2-m rotates on a fixed frictionless horizontal axis. The moment of inertia of the wheel is 10.0 kg m$^2$. A constant tension on the rope exerted around the rim is 40.0 N. If the wheel starts from rest at $t=0$ s, calculate the length of the rope unwounded after 3.00 seconds.
Answer:
The equation of motion for rotation is
\[
\sum \tau = rF = I\alpha
\]
where $\tau$ is the torque, $F$ is the tension, $I$ is the moment of inertia, and $\alpha$ is the angular acceleration. Now, solve for the angular acceleration.
\begin{equation}
\alpha = \frac{rT}{I} = \frac{2\cdot 40}{10} = 8.00 \ \mathrm{rad/s^2}
\end{equation}
According to angular kinematics, we can calculate the angular displacement.
\begin{equation}
\theta = \theta_0 + \omega_0 t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2 = 0+0+\frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2 =\frac{1}{2}\cdot 8.00 \cdot 3^2 = 36.0 \ \mathrm{rad}
\end{equation}
The linear displacement is
\[
d = r\theta = 2.0 \cdot 36.0 = 72.0 \ \mathrm{m}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Resistor and inductor circuit with a steady voltage source
Question:
A circuit that has a resistor, $R$, and an inductor, $L$, which are connected in series with a DC voltage source $V$. The initial value of the current is $I(t=0)=0$ A. Find the current as a function of time.
Answer:
From Kirchoff's law, the generated voltage is consumed by each element.
\[
V-RI-L\frac{dI}{dt}=0
\]
\begin{eqnarray}
RI+L\frac{dI}{dt} &=& V \\
I' + \frac{1}{\tau}I &=& \frac{V}{L}
\end{eqnarray}
where $I'=\frac{dI}{dt}$ and $\tau=\frac{L}{R}$. Now, let $D\equiv \frac{d}{dt}$.
\begin{equation}
\left(D+\frac{1}{\tau}\right)I=\frac{V}{L} \\
\end{equation}
The fundamental solution is
\begin{equation}
I_f = C_1e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}}
\end{equation}
The particular solution is
\begin{equation}
I_p = \frac{1}{D+\frac{1}{\tau}}\cdot \frac{V}{L}=\frac{1}{0+\frac{1}{\tau}}\cdot \frac{V}{L}=\frac{V}{R}
\end{equation}
Therefore, we have the general solution.
\begin{equation}
I = C_1e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}} + \frac{V}{R}
\end{equation}
When $t=0$, $I=0$. So $0=C_1+V/R$ and $C_1=-V/R$. Then, the current is expressed as
\[
I(t) = -\frac{V}{R}e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}}+\frac{V}{R}
\]
or
\[
I(t) = \frac{V}{R}(1-e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}})
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A circuit that has a resistor, $R$, and an inductor, $L$, which are connected in series with a DC voltage source $V$. The initial value of the current is $I(t=0)=0$ A. Find the current as a function of time.
Answer:
From Kirchoff's law, the generated voltage is consumed by each element.
\[
V-RI-L\frac{dI}{dt}=0
\]
\begin{eqnarray}
RI+L\frac{dI}{dt} &=& V \\
I' + \frac{1}{\tau}I &=& \frac{V}{L}
\end{eqnarray}
where $I'=\frac{dI}{dt}$ and $\tau=\frac{L}{R}$. Now, let $D\equiv \frac{d}{dt}$.
\begin{equation}
\left(D+\frac{1}{\tau}\right)I=\frac{V}{L} \\
\end{equation}
The fundamental solution is
\begin{equation}
I_f = C_1e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}}
\end{equation}
The particular solution is
\begin{equation}
I_p = \frac{1}{D+\frac{1}{\tau}}\cdot \frac{V}{L}=\frac{1}{0+\frac{1}{\tau}}\cdot \frac{V}{L}=\frac{V}{R}
\end{equation}
Therefore, we have the general solution.
\begin{equation}
I = C_1e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}} + \frac{V}{R}
\end{equation}
When $t=0$, $I=0$. So $0=C_1+V/R$ and $C_1=-V/R$. Then, the current is expressed as
\[
I(t) = -\frac{V}{R}e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}}+\frac{V}{R}
\]
or
\[
I(t) = \frac{V}{R}(1-e^{-\frac{t}{\tau}})
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Ampere's law: A toroid carrying current
Question:
A toroid has $N$ turns both sides carrying equal current $I$. The inner and outer radii are $a$ and $b$, respectively. A distance $r$ is supposed to be exact the middle between $a$ and $b$. Find the magnetic field at $r$.
Answer:
From Ampere's law, if inside the contour has a current $I$, we have the relationship:
\[
\oint \vec{B}\cdot dl = \mu_0 I
\]
The radius of the contour is $r$ which encloses the current $N\times I$. Therefore,
\[
B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 NI
\]
Recall that $r=\frac{a+b}{2}$; thus, the magnetic field is
\[
B = \frac{\mu_0 NI}{\pi(a+b)}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A toroid has $N$ turns both sides carrying equal current $I$. The inner and outer radii are $a$ and $b$, respectively. A distance $r$ is supposed to be exact the middle between $a$ and $b$. Find the magnetic field at $r$.
Answer:
From Ampere's law, if inside the contour has a current $I$, we have the relationship:
\[
\oint \vec{B}\cdot dl = \mu_0 I
\]
The radius of the contour is $r$ which encloses the current $N\times I$. Therefore,
\[
B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 NI
\]
Recall that $r=\frac{a+b}{2}$; thus, the magnetic field is
\[
B = \frac{\mu_0 NI}{\pi(a+b)}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Finding the enclosed area: A parabola and a circle
Question:
A parabola is given as
\begin{equation}
y=\frac{1}{4}x^2-1
\end{equation}
A circle is also given in the same plane:
\begin{equation}
x^2+y^2=16
\end{equation}
Calculate the enclosed area of the upper part segmented by the parabola and the circle.
Answer:
Find the intersections first
. From equation (2), the ranges of $x$ and $y$ are $-4\leqq x,y \leqq 4$. Solve for $x^2$ in (2).
\begin{equation}
x^2=16-y^2
\end{equation}
Plug it in (1)
\begin{eqnarray}
& & y = \frac{1}{4}(16-y^2)-1 \\
& & y^2 = 4y -12 = 0 \\
& & (y-2)(y+6) = 0
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, $y=2$ or $y=-6$; however, $y=-6$ is beyond the range. $y$ takes only 2 for the coordinate. Using this result, we obtain $x$ as $\pm 2\sqrt{3}$, and both values are within the range. The coordinates of the intersections are ($+2\sqrt{3}, 2$) and ($-2\sqrt{3}, 2$). Now, find the area of the shaded part. As shown in the figure, it is subtracted the right angle triangle from the sector with 60 degrees. In other expression, (Area of the shaded part) = (Area of the sector) - (Area of the triangle). That is
\begin{eqnarray}
&=& \left(\pi 4^2 \times \frac{60}{360}\right) - \left(\frac{1}{2}\times 2 \times 2\sqrt{3}\right) \\
&=& \frac{8}{3}\pi - 2\sqrt{3}
\end{eqnarray}
The lower part is constructed by the functions between $y=2$ and $y=\frac{1}{4}x^2-1$.
\begin{eqnarray}
& &\int^{2\sqrt{3}}_0 \left\{2-\left(\frac{1}{4}x^2-1\right)\right\}dx \\
& & = \left[3x-\frac{1}{4}\cdot \frac{x^3}{3}\right]^{2\sqrt{3}}_0 \\
& & = 3 \times 2\sqrt{3} - \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{(2\sqrt{3})^3}{3} \\
& & = 4\sqrt{3}
\end{eqnarray}
Then, the upper shaded and lower parts are added.
\[
A_{\mathrm{half}}=\frac{8}{3}\pi - 2\sqrt{3}+4\sqrt{3}=\frac{8}{3}\pi + 2\sqrt{3}
\]
Therefore, the area is
\[
A = 2 \times A_{\mathrm{half}}=\frac{16}{3}\pi + 4\sqrt{3}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A parabola is given as
\begin{equation}
y=\frac{1}{4}x^2-1
\end{equation}
A circle is also given in the same plane:
\begin{equation}
x^2+y^2=16
\end{equation}
Calculate the enclosed area of the upper part segmented by the parabola and the circle.
Answer:
Find the intersections first
. From equation (2), the ranges of $x$ and $y$ are $-4\leqq x,y \leqq 4$. Solve for $x^2$ in (2).
\begin{equation}
x^2=16-y^2
\end{equation}
Plug it in (1)
\begin{eqnarray}
& & y = \frac{1}{4}(16-y^2)-1 \\
& & y^2 = 4y -12 = 0 \\
& & (y-2)(y+6) = 0
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, $y=2$ or $y=-6$; however, $y=-6$ is beyond the range. $y$ takes only 2 for the coordinate. Using this result, we obtain $x$ as $\pm 2\sqrt{3}$, and both values are within the range. The coordinates of the intersections are ($+2\sqrt{3}, 2$) and ($-2\sqrt{3}, 2$). Now, find the area of the shaded part. As shown in the figure, it is subtracted the right angle triangle from the sector with 60 degrees. In other expression, (Area of the shaded part) = (Area of the sector) - (Area of the triangle). That is
\begin{eqnarray}
&=& \left(\pi 4^2 \times \frac{60}{360}\right) - \left(\frac{1}{2}\times 2 \times 2\sqrt{3}\right) \\
&=& \frac{8}{3}\pi - 2\sqrt{3}
\end{eqnarray}
The lower part is constructed by the functions between $y=2$ and $y=\frac{1}{4}x^2-1$.
\begin{eqnarray}
& &\int^{2\sqrt{3}}_0 \left\{2-\left(\frac{1}{4}x^2-1\right)\right\}dx \\
& & = \left[3x-\frac{1}{4}\cdot \frac{x^3}{3}\right]^{2\sqrt{3}}_0 \\
& & = 3 \times 2\sqrt{3} - \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{(2\sqrt{3})^3}{3} \\
& & = 4\sqrt{3}
\end{eqnarray}
Then, the upper shaded and lower parts are added.
\[
A_{\mathrm{half}}=\frac{8}{3}\pi - 2\sqrt{3}+4\sqrt{3}=\frac{8}{3}\pi + 2\sqrt{3}
\]
Therefore, the area is
\[
A = 2 \times A_{\mathrm{half}}=\frac{16}{3}\pi + 4\sqrt{3}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Saturday, February 20, 2016
Special theory of relativity: Velocity addition
Question:
The speed of light is measured in a liquid that has refractive index of $n$. If the liquid is moving at $v$, what is the speed of light in the liquid detected in the laboratory frame?
Answer:
The addition of two velocities from the lab frame in terms of relativity is
\[
v_{\mathrm{added}} = \frac{v_1+v_2}{1+\frac{v_1v_2}{c^2}}
\]
The speed of light in liquid is given by
\[
v' = \frac{c}{n}
\]
In this case, $v_1=\frac{c}{n}$ and $v_2=v$.
\begin{eqnarray}
v_{\mathrm{added}} &=& \frac{\frac{c}{n}+v}{1+\frac{\frac{c}{n}v}{c^2}} \\
&=& \frac{c/n+v}{1+v/nc} \\
&=& \frac{c(vn+c)}{nc+v}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The speed of light is measured in a liquid that has refractive index of $n$. If the liquid is moving at $v$, what is the speed of light in the liquid detected in the laboratory frame?
Answer:
The addition of two velocities from the lab frame in terms of relativity is
\[
v_{\mathrm{added}} = \frac{v_1+v_2}{1+\frac{v_1v_2}{c^2}}
\]
The speed of light in liquid is given by
\[
v' = \frac{c}{n}
\]
In this case, $v_1=\frac{c}{n}$ and $v_2=v$.
\begin{eqnarray}
v_{\mathrm{added}} &=& \frac{\frac{c}{n}+v}{1+\frac{\frac{c}{n}v}{c^2}} \\
&=& \frac{c/n+v}{1+v/nc} \\
&=& \frac{c(vn+c)}{nc+v}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Electric potential: Thin finite rod
Question:
A thin rod is placed along the z-axis that is stretched from $z=-d$ to $z=+d$. Let $\lambda$ be the linear density. There are two points $P_1 = (0,0,2d)$ and $P_2 = (x,0,0)$. Find the $x$ coordinate of $P_2$ so that potentials at $P_1$ and $P_2$ are equal.
Answer:
The potential at $P_1$ is positioned at the distance of $d$ from the edge of the rod, so the distance from the tiny piece of the charged rod should be $2d-z$. The charge is expressed by $\lambda dz$. Thus, the potential can be calculated as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi_1 &=& \int \frac{kdq}{r} = k\int^{d}_{-d}\frac{\lambda dz}{2d-z} \\
&=& -k\lambda \left[\ln(2d-z)\right]^{d}_{-d} \\
&=& -k\lambda (\ln(2d-d)-\ln(2d+d)) \\
&=& -k\lambda (\ln(d)-\ln(3d)) \\
&=& -k\lambda \left(\ln\frac{1}{3}\right) \\
&=& -k\lambda (-\ln(3)) \\
&=& k\lambda \ln(3)
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise,
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi_2 &=& k\int^{d}_{-d}\frac{\lambda dz}{\sqrt{x^2+z^2}} \\
&=& k\lambda \ln\frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d}
\end{eqnarray}
These potentials are equal, so
\begin{eqnarray}
k\lambda \ln(3) &=& k\lambda \ln\frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d} \\
3 &=& \frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d} \\
3\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-3d &=& \sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d \\
2\sqrt{x^2+d^2} &=& 4d \\
x^2 + d^2 &=& 4d^2 \\
x &=& \sqrt{3}d
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A thin rod is placed along the z-axis that is stretched from $z=-d$ to $z=+d$. Let $\lambda$ be the linear density. There are two points $P_1 = (0,0,2d)$ and $P_2 = (x,0,0)$. Find the $x$ coordinate of $P_2$ so that potentials at $P_1$ and $P_2$ are equal.
Answer:
The potential at $P_1$ is positioned at the distance of $d$ from the edge of the rod, so the distance from the tiny piece of the charged rod should be $2d-z$. The charge is expressed by $\lambda dz$. Thus, the potential can be calculated as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi_1 &=& \int \frac{kdq}{r} = k\int^{d}_{-d}\frac{\lambda dz}{2d-z} \\
&=& -k\lambda \left[\ln(2d-z)\right]^{d}_{-d} \\
&=& -k\lambda (\ln(2d-d)-\ln(2d+d)) \\
&=& -k\lambda (\ln(d)-\ln(3d)) \\
&=& -k\lambda \left(\ln\frac{1}{3}\right) \\
&=& -k\lambda (-\ln(3)) \\
&=& k\lambda \ln(3)
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise,
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi_2 &=& k\int^{d}_{-d}\frac{\lambda dz}{\sqrt{x^2+z^2}} \\
&=& k\lambda \ln\frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d}
\end{eqnarray}
These potentials are equal, so
\begin{eqnarray}
k\lambda \ln(3) &=& k\lambda \ln\frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d} \\
3 &=& \frac{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-d} \\
3\sqrt{x^2+d^2}-3d &=& \sqrt{x^2+d^2}+d \\
2\sqrt{x^2+d^2} &=& 4d \\
x^2 + d^2 &=& 4d^2 \\
x &=& \sqrt{3}d
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Friday, February 19, 2016
Infinite integral with one constant and one variable
Question:
Find the value of
\[
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx
\]
Answer:
Let
\[
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}f(x,b)dx = 2\int^{\infty}_{0}f(x,b)dx
\]
where $f(x,b)=e^{-x^2}\cos 2bx$. According to the properties of the functions, we can state that $|f(x,b)| \leqq e^{-x^2}$; and $\int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}$ is finite. Therefore, $\varphi(b)=\int^{\infty}_{0}f(x,b)dx$ is also finite. Now, take the partial derivative of the function $f(x,b)$ with respect to $b$.
\[
f_b(x,b) = -2xe^{-x^2}\sin 2bx
\]
This is continuous for arbitrary $b$ with $x \geqq 0$. Also we know $|f(x,b)| \leqq 2xe^{-x^2}$; and $\int^{\infty}_{0}2xe^{-x^2}$ is finite. Therefore, $\int^{\infty}_{0}f_b(x,b)dx$ is also finite for any $b$. Then,
\begin{eqnarray}
\varphi'(b) &=& \int^{\infty}_{0}f_b(x,b)dx \\
&=& \int^{\infty}_{0}-2xe^{-x^2}\sin 2bxdx \\
&=& \left[ e^{-x^2}\sin 2bx \right]^{\infty}_{0} - 2b\int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx \\
&=& 0-2b\varphi(b)
\end{eqnarray}
We have the following:
\begin{equation}
\frac{\varphi'(b)}{\varphi(b)}=-2b
\end{equation}
Then, integrate both sides.
\begin{eqnarray}
\ln|\varphi(b)| &=& -b^2 + C \\
\varphi(b) &=& Ce^{-b^2}
\end{eqnarray}
From the initial condition,
\begin{equation}
\varphi(0) = \int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}=C
\end{equation}
Thus,
\begin{equation}
\varphi(b)=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}e^{-b^2}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx = \sqrt{\pi}e^{-b^2}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Find the value of
\[
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx
\]
Answer:
Let
\[
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}f(x,b)dx = 2\int^{\infty}_{0}f(x,b)dx
\]
where $f(x,b)=e^{-x^2}\cos 2bx$. According to the properties of the functions, we can state that $|f(x,b)| \leqq e^{-x^2}$; and $\int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}$ is finite. Therefore, $\varphi(b)=\int^{\infty}_{0}f(x,b)dx$ is also finite. Now, take the partial derivative of the function $f(x,b)$ with respect to $b$.
\[
f_b(x,b) = -2xe^{-x^2}\sin 2bx
\]
This is continuous for arbitrary $b$ with $x \geqq 0$. Also we know $|f(x,b)| \leqq 2xe^{-x^2}$; and $\int^{\infty}_{0}2xe^{-x^2}$ is finite. Therefore, $\int^{\infty}_{0}f_b(x,b)dx$ is also finite for any $b$. Then,
\begin{eqnarray}
\varphi'(b) &=& \int^{\infty}_{0}f_b(x,b)dx \\
&=& \int^{\infty}_{0}-2xe^{-x^2}\sin 2bxdx \\
&=& \left[ e^{-x^2}\sin 2bx \right]^{\infty}_{0} - 2b\int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx \\
&=& 0-2b\varphi(b)
\end{eqnarray}
We have the following:
\begin{equation}
\frac{\varphi'(b)}{\varphi(b)}=-2b
\end{equation}
Then, integrate both sides.
\begin{eqnarray}
\ln|\varphi(b)| &=& -b^2 + C \\
\varphi(b) &=& Ce^{-b^2}
\end{eqnarray}
From the initial condition,
\begin{equation}
\varphi(0) = \int^{\infty}_{0}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}=C
\end{equation}
Thus,
\begin{equation}
\varphi(b)=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}e^{-b^2}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}e^{-x^2}\cos 2bxdx = \sqrt{\pi}e^{-b^2}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Thursday, February 18, 2016
Electromagnetic waves: Maxwell's equations
Question:
The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given as
\[
\vec{E}=(E_{0x}\vec{x} + E_{0y}\vec{y})\sin(\omega t - kz + \phi)
\]
Knowing that this is traveling along the z-axis. Find the magnetic field from this.
Answer:
From Maxwell's equations, we have
\[
\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}
\]
This is known as Faraday's law. Calculate the left hand side.
\begin{eqnarray}
\nabla \times \vec{E} &=& \left(\frac{\partial E_z}{\partial y}-\frac{\partial E_y}{\partial z}\right)\vec{x}+\left(\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial z}-\frac{\partial E_z}{\partial x}\right)\vec{y} \\
&=& E_{0y}k\cos(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{x} - E_{0x}k\cos(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{y}
\end{eqnarray}
This is equal to $-\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}$. Thus, integrate both sides with respect to time to find the magnetic field.
\begin{eqnarray}
\vec{B} &=& -\int (\nabla \times \vec{E}) dt \\
&=& -E_{0y}\frac{k}{\omega}\sin(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{x} + E_{0x}\frac{k}{\omega}\sin(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{y} \\
&=& (-E_{0y}\vec{x}+E_{0x}\vec{y})\frac{1}{c}\sin(\omega t - kz + \phi)
\end{eqnarray}
Note that $\omega=2\pi f$ and $k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}$. Therefore, $\frac{k}{\omega}=\frac{1}{c}$ since $c=\lambda f $. The magnetic field propagates perpendicularly to the electric field with a shift of $\pi$ as you can see from the equations.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given as
\[
\vec{E}=(E_{0x}\vec{x} + E_{0y}\vec{y})\sin(\omega t - kz + \phi)
\]
Knowing that this is traveling along the z-axis. Find the magnetic field from this.
Answer:
From Maxwell's equations, we have
\[
\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}
\]
This is known as Faraday's law. Calculate the left hand side.
\begin{eqnarray}
\nabla \times \vec{E} &=& \left(\frac{\partial E_z}{\partial y}-\frac{\partial E_y}{\partial z}\right)\vec{x}+\left(\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial z}-\frac{\partial E_z}{\partial x}\right)\vec{y} \\
&=& E_{0y}k\cos(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{x} - E_{0x}k\cos(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{y}
\end{eqnarray}
This is equal to $-\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}$. Thus, integrate both sides with respect to time to find the magnetic field.
\begin{eqnarray}
\vec{B} &=& -\int (\nabla \times \vec{E}) dt \\
&=& -E_{0y}\frac{k}{\omega}\sin(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{x} + E_{0x}\frac{k}{\omega}\sin(\omega t-kz+\phi)\vec{y} \\
&=& (-E_{0y}\vec{x}+E_{0x}\vec{y})\frac{1}{c}\sin(\omega t - kz + \phi)
\end{eqnarray}
Note that $\omega=2\pi f$ and $k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}$. Therefore, $\frac{k}{\omega}=\frac{1}{c}$ since $c=\lambda f $. The magnetic field propagates perpendicularly to the electric field with a shift of $\pi$ as you can see from the equations.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Gravitational falling and kinematics
Question:
A stunt man jumps off from a 202-m high building onto a cushion having a thickness of 2.00 m. After his going into the cushion, it is crushed to a thickness of 0.500 m. What is the acceleration as he slows down?
Answer:
We need to find his velocity right before reaching the cushion. The cushion has 2.00-m high, so the stunt man falls by 200 m. The displacement, the initial velocity (0 m/s) and the acceleration (-9.80 m/s$^2$) are known. In order to find the final velocity, we use
\begin{eqnarray}
v^2_f - v^2_0 &=& 2g\Delta h \\
v_f &=& \sqrt{2g\Delta h} \\
&=& \sqrt{2 \cdot (-9.8) \cdot (-200)}
&=& 62.61 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{eqnarray}
Now, we calculate the deceleration of the man by the cushion using the same equation. The final velocity is zero and the initial velocity is 62.61 m/s. The final thickness is (0.500-2.00) m. Thus,
\begin{eqnarray}
v^2_f - v^2_0 &=& 2ad \\
0 - 62.61^2 &=& 2a (0.5 - 2) \\
a &=& \frac{-62.61^2}{2 \cdot (-1.5)} \\
a &=& 1307 \ \mathrm{m/s}^2
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A stunt man jumps off from a 202-m high building onto a cushion having a thickness of 2.00 m. After his going into the cushion, it is crushed to a thickness of 0.500 m. What is the acceleration as he slows down?
Answer:
We need to find his velocity right before reaching the cushion. The cushion has 2.00-m high, so the stunt man falls by 200 m. The displacement, the initial velocity (0 m/s) and the acceleration (-9.80 m/s$^2$) are known. In order to find the final velocity, we use
\begin{eqnarray}
v^2_f - v^2_0 &=& 2g\Delta h \\
v_f &=& \sqrt{2g\Delta h} \\
&=& \sqrt{2 \cdot (-9.8) \cdot (-200)}
&=& 62.61 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\end{eqnarray}
Now, we calculate the deceleration of the man by the cushion using the same equation. The final velocity is zero and the initial velocity is 62.61 m/s. The final thickness is (0.500-2.00) m. Thus,
\begin{eqnarray}
v^2_f - v^2_0 &=& 2ad \\
0 - 62.61^2 &=& 2a (0.5 - 2) \\
a &=& \frac{-62.61^2}{2 \cdot (-1.5)} \\
a &=& 1307 \ \mathrm{m/s}^2
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Wednesday, February 17, 2016
Galilean transformation
Question:
Physics laws cannot be altered by the observer's frames of reference. The transformation from a lab reference frame to a moving reference frame is known as Galilean transformation. Show that Newton's laws are invariant under Galilean transformation.
Answer:
Galilean transformation subtracts the amount of displacement regarding velocity of the moving frame of reference to make the equivalent observation from the lab frame. Namely,
\[
x' = x - vt, \quad t' = t
\]
We assume that the time elapses equally for both frames; and the relative velocity is constant. Thus, the velocity becomes
\[
v' = \frac{dx'}{dt'}=\frac{d}{dt}(x-vt)=\frac{dx}{dt}-v
\]
The acceleration becomes
\[
a' = \frac{d^2x'}{dt'^2}=\frac{dv'}{dt'}=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{dx}{dt}-v \right)=\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=a
\]
Again, note that $v$ is a constant. Therefore, the Newton's equation of motion (laws) must be invariant under Galilean transformation.
\[
F'=m\frac{d^2x'}{dt'^2}=ma=F
\]
In other words, the physics law is the same from any observers.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Physics laws cannot be altered by the observer's frames of reference. The transformation from a lab reference frame to a moving reference frame is known as Galilean transformation. Show that Newton's laws are invariant under Galilean transformation.
Answer:
Galilean transformation subtracts the amount of displacement regarding velocity of the moving frame of reference to make the equivalent observation from the lab frame. Namely,
\[
x' = x - vt, \quad t' = t
\]
We assume that the time elapses equally for both frames; and the relative velocity is constant. Thus, the velocity becomes
\[
v' = \frac{dx'}{dt'}=\frac{d}{dt}(x-vt)=\frac{dx}{dt}-v
\]
The acceleration becomes
\[
a' = \frac{d^2x'}{dt'^2}=\frac{dv'}{dt'}=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{dx}{dt}-v \right)=\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=a
\]
Again, note that $v$ is a constant. Therefore, the Newton's equation of motion (laws) must be invariant under Galilean transformation.
\[
F'=m\frac{d^2x'}{dt'^2}=ma=F
\]
In other words, the physics law is the same from any observers.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Gravity: Force and potential energy
Question:
Newtonian theory of gravity can be modified at short range. The potential energy between two objects is given as
\[
U(r) = -\frac{Gmm'}{r}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}})
\]
What is the force between $m$ and $m'$ for short distances ($r \ll \lambda$)?
Answer:
The force is conservative and calculated by the derivative of the potential energy with respect to the distance.
\begin{eqnarray}
F &=& -\frac{dU}{dr} \\
&=& -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}})+\frac{Gmm'}{r}\frac{a}{\lambda}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}}) \\
&=& -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}\left(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}}\left(1+\frac{r}{\lambda}\right)\right)
\end{eqnarray}
Since $r \ll \lambda$, $\frac{r}{\lambda}\approx 0$. Therefore, the force for short ranges is
\[
F = -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}(1-a)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Newtonian theory of gravity can be modified at short range. The potential energy between two objects is given as
\[
U(r) = -\frac{Gmm'}{r}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}})
\]
What is the force between $m$ and $m'$ for short distances ($r \ll \lambda$)?
Answer:
The force is conservative and calculated by the derivative of the potential energy with respect to the distance.
\begin{eqnarray}
F &=& -\frac{dU}{dr} \\
&=& -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}})+\frac{Gmm'}{r}\frac{a}{\lambda}(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}}) \\
&=& -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}\left(1-ae^{-\frac{r}{\lambda}}\left(1+\frac{r}{\lambda}\right)\right)
\end{eqnarray}
Since $r \ll \lambda$, $\frac{r}{\lambda}\approx 0$. Therefore, the force for short ranges is
\[
F = -\frac{Gmm'}{r^2}(1-a)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Tuesday, February 16, 2016
Magnetic fields from current flows and resistor circuit
Question:
The wire splits into two ways, which are bent circularly with radius of $a$. The upper half wire has resistance $2R$ and the lower part has $R$. Find the magnetic fields at the center of the circle in terms of the total current $I$.
Answer:
The magnetic field created by current $I_1$ is denoted as $B_1$. From Biot-Savart law,
\begin{eqnarray}
\vec{B_1} &=& \oint \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I d\vec{l}\times \vec{r}}{r^2} \\
&=& \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I_1}{a^2}\int_{0\rightarrow \pi a}dl (-\vec{z}) \\
&=& -\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I_1}{a^2}\pi a\vec{z} \\
&=& -\frac{\mu_0 I_1}{4a}\vec{z}
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise, we can obtain the magnetic field created by the lower part.
\begin{equation}
\vec{B_2} = \frac{\mu_0 I_2}{4a}\vec{z}
\end{equation}
This is a parallel connection, and we can use
\[
\frac{I_1}{I_2}=\frac{R}{2R} \quad \rightarrow \quad I_1=\frac{1}{2}I_2
\]
The current is conserved.
\[
I = I_1 + I_2 \quad \rightarrow \quad I_2 = I - I_1
\]
Therefore,
\[
I_1=\frac{1}{2}(I - I_1) \quad \rightarrow \quad I_1 = \frac{I}{3}
\]
Hence, the other current will be
\[
I_2 = \frac{2I}{3}
\]
The magnetic field is expressed as
\[
\vec{B}=\vec{B_1}+\vec{B_2}=\frac{\mu_0}{4a}(I_2-I_2)\vec{z}=\frac{\mu_0}{4a}\left(\frac{2I}{3}-\frac{I}{3}\right)\vec{z}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{12a}\vec{z}
\]
The magnetic field is directed toward us.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The wire splits into two ways, which are bent circularly with radius of $a$. The upper half wire has resistance $2R$ and the lower part has $R$. Find the magnetic fields at the center of the circle in terms of the total current $I$.
Answer:
The magnetic field created by current $I_1$ is denoted as $B_1$. From Biot-Savart law,
\begin{eqnarray}
\vec{B_1} &=& \oint \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I d\vec{l}\times \vec{r}}{r^2} \\
&=& \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I_1}{a^2}\int_{0\rightarrow \pi a}dl (-\vec{z}) \\
&=& -\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I_1}{a^2}\pi a\vec{z} \\
&=& -\frac{\mu_0 I_1}{4a}\vec{z}
\end{eqnarray}
Likewise, we can obtain the magnetic field created by the lower part.
\begin{equation}
\vec{B_2} = \frac{\mu_0 I_2}{4a}\vec{z}
\end{equation}
This is a parallel connection, and we can use
\[
\frac{I_1}{I_2}=\frac{R}{2R} \quad \rightarrow \quad I_1=\frac{1}{2}I_2
\]
The current is conserved.
\[
I = I_1 + I_2 \quad \rightarrow \quad I_2 = I - I_1
\]
Therefore,
\[
I_1=\frac{1}{2}(I - I_1) \quad \rightarrow \quad I_1 = \frac{I}{3}
\]
Hence, the other current will be
\[
I_2 = \frac{2I}{3}
\]
The magnetic field is expressed as
\[
\vec{B}=\vec{B_1}+\vec{B_2}=\frac{\mu_0}{4a}(I_2-I_2)\vec{z}=\frac{\mu_0}{4a}\left(\frac{2I}{3}-\frac{I}{3}\right)\vec{z}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{12a}\vec{z}
\]
The magnetic field is directed toward us.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Monday, February 15, 2016
Matrix, eigenvalue, and eigenvector
Question:
(1) Find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of a matrix,
\[
A=\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5 & 6 \\
-4 & 5
\end{array}
\right)
\]
(2) If $C$ is constructed by the eigen vectors obtained above, find whether $C$ is a regular function and whether $C^{-1}AC$ can be a diagonal matrix.
Answer:
(1) The eigenvalues can be obtained from $|\lambda E - A|=0$ where $E$ is the unit matrix.
\begin{eqnarray}
|\lambda E - A| &=&
\left|
\begin{array}{c}
\lambda+5 & -6 \\
4 & \lambda-5
\end{array}
\right|
&=& (\lambda+5)(\lambda-5)+24 \\
&=& \lambda^2 -25 +24 \\
&=& \lambda^2 - 1
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, the eigenvalues are $\lambda = \pm 1$. The eigen equation can be expressed as
\[
A{\bf{x}} = \lambda{\bf{x}} \quad \mathrm{where} \
{\bf{x}}=\left(
\begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array}
\right) \neq 0
\]
Thus,
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5-\lambda & 6 \\
-4 & 5-\lambda
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=& 0 \\
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5-1 & 6 \\
-4 & 5-1
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=&
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-6 & 6 \\
-4 & 4
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=& 0
\end{eqnarray*}
Since the vector is not zero, in order to hold the equation, the ratio must be $x:y=1:1$. Likewise, plug in $\lambda=-1$; then, we have $x:y=3:2$. Therefore, the eigen vectors are
\[
{\bf p}=\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) =
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
1\\
1
\end{array}
\right), \quad
{\bf q}=\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) =
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
3 \\
2
\end{array}
\right)
\]
(2) A matrix $C$ is combined by two eigen vectors obtained in question (1). Namely, $C=({\bf p},{\bf q})$.
\[
C = \left(\begin{array}{c}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right)
\]
Calculate the determinant.
\[
\det C = 1 \cdot 2 - 1 \cdot 3 = -1
\]
Since $\det \neq 0$, $C$ is regular. Now, calculate the following:
\[
C^{-1}AC =
\left(\begin{array}{c}
-2 & 3 \\
1 & -1
\end{array}\right)
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5 & 6 \\
-4 & 5
\end{array}
\right)
\left(\begin{array}{c}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right)
=
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}
\right)
\]
This is a diagonal matrix and notice that the values correspond to the eigenvalues of matrix $A$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Reference,
The inverse matrix for a 2$\times$2 matix is
\[
M = \left(
\begin{array}{c}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}
\right), \quad
M^{-1} = \frac{1}{\det M}
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
d & -b \\
-c & a
\end{array}
\right)
\]
(1) Find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of a matrix,
\[
A=\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5 & 6 \\
-4 & 5
\end{array}
\right)
\]
(2) If $C$ is constructed by the eigen vectors obtained above, find whether $C$ is a regular function and whether $C^{-1}AC$ can be a diagonal matrix.
Answer:
(1) The eigenvalues can be obtained from $|\lambda E - A|=0$ where $E$ is the unit matrix.
\begin{eqnarray}
|\lambda E - A| &=&
\left|
\begin{array}{c}
\lambda+5 & -6 \\
4 & \lambda-5
\end{array}
\right|
&=& (\lambda+5)(\lambda-5)+24 \\
&=& \lambda^2 -25 +24 \\
&=& \lambda^2 - 1
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, the eigenvalues are $\lambda = \pm 1$. The eigen equation can be expressed as
\[
A{\bf{x}} = \lambda{\bf{x}} \quad \mathrm{where} \
{\bf{x}}=\left(
\begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array}
\right) \neq 0
\]
Thus,
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5-\lambda & 6 \\
-4 & 5-\lambda
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=& 0 \\
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5-1 & 6 \\
-4 & 5-1
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=&
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-6 & 6 \\
-4 & 4
\end{array}
\right)
\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) &=& 0
\end{eqnarray*}
Since the vector is not zero, in order to hold the equation, the ratio must be $x:y=1:1$. Likewise, plug in $\lambda=-1$; then, we have $x:y=3:2$. Therefore, the eigen vectors are
\[
{\bf p}=\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) =
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
1\\
1
\end{array}
\right), \quad
{\bf q}=\left( \begin{array}{c}
x \\
y
\end{array} \right) =
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
3 \\
2
\end{array}
\right)
\]
(2) A matrix $C$ is combined by two eigen vectors obtained in question (1). Namely, $C=({\bf p},{\bf q})$.
\[
C = \left(\begin{array}{c}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right)
\]
Calculate the determinant.
\[
\det C = 1 \cdot 2 - 1 \cdot 3 = -1
\]
Since $\det \neq 0$, $C$ is regular. Now, calculate the following:
\[
C^{-1}AC =
\left(\begin{array}{c}
-2 & 3 \\
1 & -1
\end{array}\right)
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
-5 & 6 \\
-4 & 5
\end{array}
\right)
\left(\begin{array}{c}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right)
=
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}
\right)
\]
This is a diagonal matrix and notice that the values correspond to the eigenvalues of matrix $A$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Reference,
The inverse matrix for a 2$\times$2 matix is
\[
M = \left(
\begin{array}{c}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}
\right), \quad
M^{-1} = \frac{1}{\det M}
\left(
\begin{array}{c}
d & -b \\
-c & a
\end{array}
\right)
\]
Horizontal spring motion: Wave equation
Question:
An object attached to a spring moves on a horizontal frictionless surface. This is a harmonic motion with amplitude of 0.16 m and period of 2.0 s. The mass is released from rest at $t=0$ s and $x=-0.16$ m. Find the displacement as a function of time.
Answer:
The simple harmonic motion is given as
\[
x = A\cos(\omega t + \delta)
\]
The amplitude, $A$, is 0.16 m. Since the period $T=2.0$ s, the frequency is calculated as
\[
f = \frac{1}{2.0}=0.50 \ \mathrm{Hz}
\]
Then, the angular frequency is
\[
\omega = 2\pi f = \pi \ \mathrm{rad/s}
\]
In order to find the phase, $\delta$, we need to check the initial state. When $t=0$, the wave equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray*}
-0.16 &=& 0.16\cos(\delta) \\
\cos(\delta) &=& -1.0 \\
\delta &=& \cos^{-1}(-1.0) \\
\delta &=& \pi
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, we have the final form of the equation.
\[
x = 0.16\cos(\pi t + \pi)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
An object attached to a spring moves on a horizontal frictionless surface. This is a harmonic motion with amplitude of 0.16 m and period of 2.0 s. The mass is released from rest at $t=0$ s and $x=-0.16$ m. Find the displacement as a function of time.
Answer:
The simple harmonic motion is given as
\[
x = A\cos(\omega t + \delta)
\]
The amplitude, $A$, is 0.16 m. Since the period $T=2.0$ s, the frequency is calculated as
\[
f = \frac{1}{2.0}=0.50 \ \mathrm{Hz}
\]
Then, the angular frequency is
\[
\omega = 2\pi f = \pi \ \mathrm{rad/s}
\]
In order to find the phase, $\delta$, we need to check the initial state. When $t=0$, the wave equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray*}
-0.16 &=& 0.16\cos(\delta) \\
\cos(\delta) &=& -1.0 \\
\delta &=& \cos^{-1}(-1.0) \\
\delta &=& \pi
\end{eqnarray*}
Thus, we have the final form of the equation.
\[
x = 0.16\cos(\pi t + \pi)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Sunday, February 14, 2016
RC circuit: With a DC power supply
Question:
Consider an RC circuit with a DC voltage supply as shown in the figure. There are four identical resistors ($R$=1.00 mega $\mathrm{\Omega}$) connected to one capacitor ($C$= 1.00 micro F). The voltage of the power supply is 10$\times$10$^6$ V. If the capacitor is fully charged and then the power supply is removed, find the current at $t=$0.5 s.
Answer:
All the four resistors are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of multiple parallel resistors is given by
\[
\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{1}}}+\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{2}}}+\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{3}}}+\cdots
\]
In this case, we obtain
\[
\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}=\frac{4}{R}
\]
Thus,
\[
R_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{R}{4}=\frac{1.00\times 10^6}{4}=2.50\times 10^5 \mathrm{\Omega}
\]
From Kirchoff's law, each circuit element consumes the voltage, and the total of it and supplied voltage must be zero. The capacitor consumes voltage, $\frac{Q}{C}$ where $Q$ is the total charge. The resistor consumes $RI$ because of Ohm's law. Since we consider the discharging process, voltage from the power supply is zero. Then, we have
\[
-RI-\frac{Q}{C}=0
\]
We know $I=\frac{dQ}{dt}$, so
\[
\frac{dQ}{dt}+\frac{Q}{RC}=0
\]
Solve this differential equation:
\[
Q=Q_0 e^{-\frac{t}{RC}}
\]
The charges and current flow are equivalent in terms of time, so can express it as
\[
I=I_0 e^{-\frac{t}{RC}}
\]
$RC$ is known as the time constant, $\tau=2.50\times 10^5 \times 1.00 \times 10^{-6}=0.25$ s. $I_0$ is the current right before the voltage source is removed; namely, the maximum current. It can be calculated by Ohm's law.
\[
I_0=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{10\times 10^6}{2.50\times 10^5}=40.0 \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Then, we can find the current at $t=0.5$ s.
\[
I=40.0 e^{-\frac{0.5}{0.25}}=5.41 \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Consider an RC circuit with a DC voltage supply as shown in the figure. There are four identical resistors ($R$=1.00 mega $\mathrm{\Omega}$) connected to one capacitor ($C$= 1.00 micro F). The voltage of the power supply is 10$\times$10$^6$ V. If the capacitor is fully charged and then the power supply is removed, find the current at $t=$0.5 s.
Answer:
All the four resistors are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of multiple parallel resistors is given by
\[
\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{1}}}+\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{2}}}+\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{3}}}+\cdots
\]
In this case, we obtain
\[
\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R}=\frac{4}{R}
\]
Thus,
\[
R_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{R}{4}=\frac{1.00\times 10^6}{4}=2.50\times 10^5 \mathrm{\Omega}
\]
From Kirchoff's law, each circuit element consumes the voltage, and the total of it and supplied voltage must be zero. The capacitor consumes voltage, $\frac{Q}{C}$ where $Q$ is the total charge. The resistor consumes $RI$ because of Ohm's law. Since we consider the discharging process, voltage from the power supply is zero. Then, we have
\[
-RI-\frac{Q}{C}=0
\]
We know $I=\frac{dQ}{dt}$, so
\[
\frac{dQ}{dt}+\frac{Q}{RC}=0
\]
Solve this differential equation:
\[
Q=Q_0 e^{-\frac{t}{RC}}
\]
The charges and current flow are equivalent in terms of time, so can express it as
\[
I=I_0 e^{-\frac{t}{RC}}
\]
$RC$ is known as the time constant, $\tau=2.50\times 10^5 \times 1.00 \times 10^{-6}=0.25$ s. $I_0$ is the current right before the voltage source is removed; namely, the maximum current. It can be calculated by Ohm's law.
\[
I_0=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{10\times 10^6}{2.50\times 10^5}=40.0 \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Then, we can find the current at $t=0.5$ s.
\[
I=40.0 e^{-\frac{0.5}{0.25}}=5.41 \ \mathrm{A}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Saturday, February 13, 2016
Vector calculus: Outer product and surface integral
Question:
A curved surface, $S$, is given as
$\vec{r}=\cos u \sin v \vec{i} + \sin u \sin v \vec{j} + \cos v \vec{k}$
$(0\leqq u \leqq 2\pi, 0\leqq v \leqq \pi)$
(1) Find $\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}$.
(2) Find $\iint_S \left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right| dudv$.
Answer:
(1) Take the partial derivative.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u} &=& -\sin u \sin v \vec{i} + \cos u \sin v \vec{j} \\
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v} &=& \cos u \cos v \vec{i} + \sin u \cos v \vec{j} -\sin v \vec{k}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\[
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v} =
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
\left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_i & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_j & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_k \\
\left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_i & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_j & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_k \\
\end{array}
\right| \\
=
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
-\sin u \sin v & \cos u \sin v & 0 \\
\cos u \cos v & \sin u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right| \\
=
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\cos u \sin v & 0 \\
\sin u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right|\vec{i}
-
\left| \begin{array}{c}
-\sin u \sin v & 0 \\
\cos u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right| \vec{j}
+
\left| \begin{array}{c}
-\sin u \sin v & \cos u \sin v \\
\cos u \cos v & \sin u \cos v \\
\end{array}
\right|\vec{k} \\
=-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v(\sin^2 u +\cos^2 u)\vec{k} \\
=-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v \vec{k}
\]
(2) Calculate $\left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right|$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right| &=&
\sqrt{|-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v \vec{k}|^2} \\
&=& \sqrt{\cos^2 u \sin^4 v+\sin u^2 \sin^4 v+\sin^2 v \cos^2 v} \\
&=& \sqrt{\sin^4 v(\cos^2 u+\sin u^2)+\sin^2 v \cos^2 v} \\
&=& \sqrt{\sin^2 v(\sin^2 v+\cos^2 v)} \\
&=& |\sin v|
\end{eqnarray*}
Therefore, we have the integral.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\int^{\pi}_0 |\sin v| dv \int^{2\pi}_0 du &=& [-\cos v]^{\pi}_0 \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& [-\cos \pi -(-\cos 0)] \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& [ 1 + 1] \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& 4\pi
\end{eqnarray*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A curved surface, $S$, is given as
$\vec{r}=\cos u \sin v \vec{i} + \sin u \sin v \vec{j} + \cos v \vec{k}$
$(0\leqq u \leqq 2\pi, 0\leqq v \leqq \pi)$
(1) Find $\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}$.
(2) Find $\iint_S \left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right| dudv$.
Answer:
(1) Take the partial derivative.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u} &=& -\sin u \sin v \vec{i} + \cos u \sin v \vec{j} \\
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v} &=& \cos u \cos v \vec{i} + \sin u \cos v \vec{j} -\sin v \vec{k}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\[
\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v} =
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
\left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_i & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_j & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\right)_k \\
\left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_i & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_j & \left(\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right)_k \\
\end{array}
\right| \\
=
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
-\sin u \sin v & \cos u \sin v & 0 \\
\cos u \cos v & \sin u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right| \\
=
\left| \begin{array}{c}
\cos u \sin v & 0 \\
\sin u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right|\vec{i}
-
\left| \begin{array}{c}
-\sin u \sin v & 0 \\
\cos u \cos v & -\sin v \\
\end{array}
\right| \vec{j}
+
\left| \begin{array}{c}
-\sin u \sin v & \cos u \sin v \\
\cos u \cos v & \sin u \cos v \\
\end{array}
\right|\vec{k} \\
=-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v(\sin^2 u +\cos^2 u)\vec{k} \\
=-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v \vec{k}
\]
(2) Calculate $\left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right|$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left| \frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\vec{r}}{\partial v}\right| &=&
\sqrt{|-\cos u \sin^2 v\vec{i}-\sin u \sin^2 v\vec{j}-\sin v \cos v \vec{k}|^2} \\
&=& \sqrt{\cos^2 u \sin^4 v+\sin u^2 \sin^4 v+\sin^2 v \cos^2 v} \\
&=& \sqrt{\sin^4 v(\cos^2 u+\sin u^2)+\sin^2 v \cos^2 v} \\
&=& \sqrt{\sin^2 v(\sin^2 v+\cos^2 v)} \\
&=& |\sin v|
\end{eqnarray*}
Therefore, we have the integral.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\int^{\pi}_0 |\sin v| dv \int^{2\pi}_0 du &=& [-\cos v]^{\pi}_0 \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& [-\cos \pi -(-\cos 0)] \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& [ 1 + 1] \cdot 2\pi \\
&=& 4\pi
\end{eqnarray*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Speed of waves: Water
Question:
The bulk modulus of water is 2.04$\times$10$^9$ Pa. The frequency of a water wave is found to be 262 Hz. What is the wavelength?
Answer:
The density of water is 1000 kg/m$^3$. The speed of the wave is given by
\[
v = \sqrt{\frac{B}{\rho}}
\]
where $B$ and $\rho$ are the bulk modulus and the density, respectively. Plug in the numbers.
\[
v = \sqrt{\frac{2.04\times 10^9}{1000}}=1428 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\]
We know the relationship:
\[
v = f\lambda
\]
Therefore, the wavelength is
\[
\lambda = \frac{v}{f}=\frac{1428}{262}=5.45 \ \mathrm{m}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
The bulk modulus of water is 2.04$\times$10$^9$ Pa. The frequency of a water wave is found to be 262 Hz. What is the wavelength?
Answer:
The density of water is 1000 kg/m$^3$. The speed of the wave is given by
\[
v = \sqrt{\frac{B}{\rho}}
\]
where $B$ and $\rho$ are the bulk modulus and the density, respectively. Plug in the numbers.
\[
v = \sqrt{\frac{2.04\times 10^9}{1000}}=1428 \ \mathrm{m/s}
\]
We know the relationship:
\[
v = f\lambda
\]
Therefore, the wavelength is
\[
\lambda = \frac{v}{f}=\frac{1428}{262}=5.45 \ \mathrm{m}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Damped oscillator: Spring motion
Question:
A 0.400-kg object is attached to a spring of its force constant $k=200$ N/m and this motion is subject to a resistive force, $-bv$, which is proportional to the velocity. If the damped frequency is 99.5 % of the undamped frequency, find the value of $b$.
Answer:
The equation of motion gives:
\[
\sum F = -kx - b\frac{dx}{dt} = m\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}
\]
Let us put $\frac{dx}{dt}=x'\equiv Dx$ and $\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=x''\equiv D^2x$. The differential equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
x''+\frac{b}{m}x'+\frac{k}{m}x &=& 0 \quad \mathrm{or} \\
\left(D^2+\frac{b}{m}D+\frac{k}{m}\right)x &=& 0
\end{eqnarray}
Let us also put $\omega_0 = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}$, which is called the rational frequency. This system is a damped oscillation, so the discriminant must be negative. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\left(\frac{b}{m}\right)^2 - 4\omega^2 < 0 \ \rightarrow \ \left(\frac{b}{m}\right)^2 < 4\omega^2
\end{equation}
The solution should be
\begin{equation}
D = -\frac{b}{2m} \pm \sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}}i
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
x = Ae^{-\frac{m}{2m}t}\cos(\omega t + \phi)
\end{equation}
where $\omega=\sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}}$, which is called the damped frequency. This frequency is 99.5% of the undamped, so
\begin{eqnarray}
& & 0.995\omega_0 = \sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}} \\
& & 0.010\omega^2_0 = \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2} \\
& & b = \sqrt{0.010 \times 4 \frac{k}{m} m^2} \\
& & b = \sqrt{0.040 km}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\[
b = 1.789 \ \mathrm{kg/s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A 0.400-kg object is attached to a spring of its force constant $k=200$ N/m and this motion is subject to a resistive force, $-bv$, which is proportional to the velocity. If the damped frequency is 99.5 % of the undamped frequency, find the value of $b$.
Answer:
The equation of motion gives:
\[
\sum F = -kx - b\frac{dx}{dt} = m\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}
\]
Let us put $\frac{dx}{dt}=x'\equiv Dx$ and $\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=x''\equiv D^2x$. The differential equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
x''+\frac{b}{m}x'+\frac{k}{m}x &=& 0 \quad \mathrm{or} \\
\left(D^2+\frac{b}{m}D+\frac{k}{m}\right)x &=& 0
\end{eqnarray}
Let us also put $\omega_0 = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}$, which is called the rational frequency. This system is a damped oscillation, so the discriminant must be negative. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\left(\frac{b}{m}\right)^2 - 4\omega^2 < 0 \ \rightarrow \ \left(\frac{b}{m}\right)^2 < 4\omega^2
\end{equation}
The solution should be
\begin{equation}
D = -\frac{b}{2m} \pm \sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}}i
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
x = Ae^{-\frac{m}{2m}t}\cos(\omega t + \phi)
\end{equation}
where $\omega=\sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}}$, which is called the damped frequency. This frequency is 99.5% of the undamped, so
\begin{eqnarray}
& & 0.995\omega_0 = \sqrt{\omega^2_0 - \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2}} \\
& & 0.010\omega^2_0 = \frac{1}{4}\frac{b^2}{m^2} \\
& & b = \sqrt{0.010 \times 4 \frac{k}{m} m^2} \\
& & b = \sqrt{0.040 km}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\[
b = 1.789 \ \mathrm{kg/s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Friday, February 12, 2016
Hydrogen molecules: Boltzmann factor
Question:
There are hydrogen molecules in a closed system by contacting a heat bath at $T=300$ K. Find the ratio of hydrogen molecules in the first rotational energy level relative to the ground state. (The molecular distance is given as $r=1.06$ angstroms.)
Answer:
This is a canonical ensemble in the sense of statistical mechanics. This gives a probability to each distinct state in terms of the Boltzmann constant.
\[
P=e^{-\frac{E_i}{kT}}
\]
The rotational part of the Schroedinger equation is
\begin{equation}
\frac{-\hbar^2}{2I}\left[\frac{1}{\sin\theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\left(\sin\theta \frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\right)+\frac{1}{\sin^2\theta}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial \phi^2}\right]\psi=E\psi
\end{equation}
where $I$ is the moment of inertia, $\mu r^2$. The rotational energy level is
\begin{equation}
E_j = \frac{\hbar^2}{2\mu r^2}j(j+1)
\end{equation}
The hydrogen atom has a proton and an electron. Thus, we have the mass.
\[
m_H = 1.67262\times 10^{-27} + 9.10938\times 10^{-31} = 1.67353\times 10^{-27} \ \mathrm{kg}
\]
The reduced mass for the molecule becomes
\[
\mu = \frac{m_{H1} m_{H2}}{m_{H1}+m_{H2}}=\frac{m_H}{2}=8.36765\times 10^{-28} \ \mathrm{kg}
\]
because $m_{H1}=m_{H2}$. The relative distance between two molecules is $1.06 \times 10^{-10}$ m. The ground state of energy is obviously $E_0 = 0$ from (1). Then, calculate the first level.
\[
E_1=\frac{\hbar^2}{2\mu r^2}2=\frac{(1.05457\times 10^{-34})^2}{8.36765\times 10^{-28} (1.06 \times 10^{-10})^2}=1.18287\times 10^{-21} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Now, calculate the following:
\[
kT = 1.38064 \times 10^{-23} \times 300 = 4.14192 \times 10^{-21} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Therefore, the probability is
\[
P = \exp\left[-\frac{E_1}{kT}\right] = \exp\left[-\frac{1.18287\times 10^{-21}}{4.14192 \times 10^{-21}}\right] = 0.752 = 75.2 \%
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
There are hydrogen molecules in a closed system by contacting a heat bath at $T=300$ K. Find the ratio of hydrogen molecules in the first rotational energy level relative to the ground state. (The molecular distance is given as $r=1.06$ angstroms.)
Answer:
This is a canonical ensemble in the sense of statistical mechanics. This gives a probability to each distinct state in terms of the Boltzmann constant.
\[
P=e^{-\frac{E_i}{kT}}
\]
The rotational part of the Schroedinger equation is
\begin{equation}
\frac{-\hbar^2}{2I}\left[\frac{1}{\sin\theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\left(\sin\theta \frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\right)+\frac{1}{\sin^2\theta}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial \phi^2}\right]\psi=E\psi
\end{equation}
where $I$ is the moment of inertia, $\mu r^2$. The rotational energy level is
\begin{equation}
E_j = \frac{\hbar^2}{2\mu r^2}j(j+1)
\end{equation}
The hydrogen atom has a proton and an electron. Thus, we have the mass.
\[
m_H = 1.67262\times 10^{-27} + 9.10938\times 10^{-31} = 1.67353\times 10^{-27} \ \mathrm{kg}
\]
The reduced mass for the molecule becomes
\[
\mu = \frac{m_{H1} m_{H2}}{m_{H1}+m_{H2}}=\frac{m_H}{2}=8.36765\times 10^{-28} \ \mathrm{kg}
\]
because $m_{H1}=m_{H2}$. The relative distance between two molecules is $1.06 \times 10^{-10}$ m. The ground state of energy is obviously $E_0 = 0$ from (1). Then, calculate the first level.
\[
E_1=\frac{\hbar^2}{2\mu r^2}2=\frac{(1.05457\times 10^{-34})^2}{8.36765\times 10^{-28} (1.06 \times 10^{-10})^2}=1.18287\times 10^{-21} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Now, calculate the following:
\[
kT = 1.38064 \times 10^{-23} \times 300 = 4.14192 \times 10^{-21} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Therefore, the probability is
\[
P = \exp\left[-\frac{E_1}{kT}\right] = \exp\left[-\frac{1.18287\times 10^{-21}}{4.14192 \times 10^{-21}}\right] = 0.752 = 75.2 \%
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Thursday, February 11, 2016
Complex variables: Regular function
Question:
Consider $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$. When $u(x,y)=\frac{x}{x^2+y^2-2y+1}$, find $f(z)$ which can be a regular function.
Answer:
According to Cauchy-Riemann equations, if the function is regular, the following must be held:
\[
\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \qquad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}
\]
Use the first equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} &=& \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{x}{x^2+(y-1)^2} \\
&=& \frac{1\cdot(x^2+(y-1)^2)-x\cdot(2x)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2} \\
&=& \frac{-x^2+(y-1)^2}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\begin{eqnarray}
v &=& \int \frac{-x^2+(y-1)^2}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}dy \\
&=& \frac{-(y-1)}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+\varphi(x)
\end{eqnarray}
Now, use the second equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial}{\partial x}v &=& \frac{2x(y-1)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}+\varphi'(x)
&=& -\frac{\partial}{\partial y}u
\end{eqnarray}
Since $-\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}= \frac{2x(y-1)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}$,
\begin{equation}
\varphi'(x) = 0 \quad \rightarrow \quad \varphi(x) = C \ \mathrm{(constant)}
\end{equation}
Therefore the function $f(z)$ becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
f(z) &=& \frac{x}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+i \left[ \frac{-(y-1)}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+C \right] \\
&=& \frac{x-iy+i}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+iC \\
\end{eqnarray}
Now, we substitute the following:
\[
x = \frac{z+z'}{2}, \qquad y = \frac{z-z'}{2i}
\]
where $z=x+iy$ and $z'=x-iy$.
\begin{eqnarray}
f(z) &=& \frac{x-iy+i}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+iC \\
&=& \frac{z'+i}{zz'+iz-iz'+1}+iC \\
&=& \frac{z'+i}{(z-i)(z'+i)}+iC \\
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, the function can be expressed by only $z$.
\begin{equation}
f(z) = \frac{1}{z-i}+iC
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Consider $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$. When $u(x,y)=\frac{x}{x^2+y^2-2y+1}$, find $f(z)$ which can be a regular function.
Answer:
According to Cauchy-Riemann equations, if the function is regular, the following must be held:
\[
\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \qquad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}
\]
Use the first equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} &=& \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{x}{x^2+(y-1)^2} \\
&=& \frac{1\cdot(x^2+(y-1)^2)-x\cdot(2x)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2} \\
&=& \frac{-x^2+(y-1)^2}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore,
\begin{eqnarray}
v &=& \int \frac{-x^2+(y-1)^2}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}dy \\
&=& \frac{-(y-1)}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+\varphi(x)
\end{eqnarray}
Now, use the second equation.
\begin{eqnarray}
\frac{\partial}{\partial x}v &=& \frac{2x(y-1)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}+\varphi'(x)
&=& -\frac{\partial}{\partial y}u
\end{eqnarray}
Since $-\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}= \frac{2x(y-1)}{(x^2+(y-1)^2)^2}$,
\begin{equation}
\varphi'(x) = 0 \quad \rightarrow \quad \varphi(x) = C \ \mathrm{(constant)}
\end{equation}
Therefore the function $f(z)$ becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
f(z) &=& \frac{x}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+i \left[ \frac{-(y-1)}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+C \right] \\
&=& \frac{x-iy+i}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+iC \\
\end{eqnarray}
Now, we substitute the following:
\[
x = \frac{z+z'}{2}, \qquad y = \frac{z-z'}{2i}
\]
where $z=x+iy$ and $z'=x-iy$.
\begin{eqnarray}
f(z) &=& \frac{x-iy+i}{x^2+(y-1)^2}+iC \\
&=& \frac{z'+i}{zz'+iz-iz'+1}+iC \\
&=& \frac{z'+i}{(z-i)(z'+i)}+iC \\
\end{eqnarray}
Therefore, the function can be expressed by only $z$.
\begin{equation}
f(z) = \frac{1}{z-i}+iC
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Proton, neutron, and pi mesons
Question:
Consider a proton, a neutron, and pi mesons. These are also called hadrons which are constructed with quarks. Particularly, these particles consist of up and down quarks. Confirm the structure of each particle and its charge.
Answer:
The up quark has $+\frac{2}{3}e$ as the electric charge. The down quark has $-\frac{1}{3}e$. Protons and neutrons are specifically called baryons which consist of three quarks. A proton contains uud quarks. The charge will be
\[
\mathrm{charge \ of \ proton} = \frac{2}{3}e+\frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = +e
\]
which is experimentally proven.
Likewise, we can find the charge of a neutron (udd).
\[
\mathrm{charge \ of \ neutron} = \frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = 0
\]
which is consistent with the experimental result.
Now, mesons are made of a quark and an anti-quark, and note that an anti-quark gets the opposite charge to its particle. The pion has three states:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\pi^+ &=& u\overline{d} = \frac{2}{3}e+\frac{1}{3}e = +e \\
\pi^- &=& \overline{u}d = -\frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = -e \\
\pi^0 &=& \frac{u\overline{u} - d\overline{d}}{\sqrt{2}} = 0
\end{eqnarray*}
Notice that $\pi^-$ is the anti-particle of $\pi^+$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Consider a proton, a neutron, and pi mesons. These are also called hadrons which are constructed with quarks. Particularly, these particles consist of up and down quarks. Confirm the structure of each particle and its charge.
Answer:
The up quark has $+\frac{2}{3}e$ as the electric charge. The down quark has $-\frac{1}{3}e$. Protons and neutrons are specifically called baryons which consist of three quarks. A proton contains uud quarks. The charge will be
\[
\mathrm{charge \ of \ proton} = \frac{2}{3}e+\frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = +e
\]
which is experimentally proven.
Likewise, we can find the charge of a neutron (udd).
\[
\mathrm{charge \ of \ neutron} = \frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = 0
\]
which is consistent with the experimental result.
Now, mesons are made of a quark and an anti-quark, and note that an anti-quark gets the opposite charge to its particle. The pion has three states:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\pi^+ &=& u\overline{d} = \frac{2}{3}e+\frac{1}{3}e = +e \\
\pi^- &=& \overline{u}d = -\frac{2}{3}e-\frac{1}{3}e = -e \\
\pi^0 &=& \frac{u\overline{u} - d\overline{d}}{\sqrt{2}} = 0
\end{eqnarray*}
Notice that $\pi^-$ is the anti-particle of $\pi^+$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Wednesday, February 10, 2016
Work function
Question:
450-nm (450$\times$10$^{-9}$ m) wavelength light is incident on sodium surface for which the threshold wavelength of the photoelectrons is 542 nm (542$\times$10$^{-9}$ m). Find the work function of sodium and kinetic energy of the incident light after photoelectrons released.
Answer:
The work function is defined as the minimum energy to obtain electrons from the material surface to infinite distance. The frequency of some light is $\nu$. The partial energy of light may be used for the minimum threshold, which is the work function, $\phi$. The extra energy becomes the kinetic energy, $T$. Namely, we have the following relationship:
\begin{equation}
h\nu = \phi + T
\end{equation}
The Planck's constant, $h$, is 6.63 $\times$ 10$^{-34}$ Js. The frequency, $\nu$, is given by the speed of light, $c$, divided by wavelength, $\lambda$. In this case, the threshold wavelength is given, so we can exclude the term of the kinetic energy.
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi &=& h\nu = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \\
&=& \frac{6.63\times 10^{-34}\cdot 3.00\times 10^8}{542\times 10^{-9}} \\
&=& 3.67 \times 10^{-19} \ \mathrm{J}
\end{eqnarray}
One joule is 6.24 $\times$ 10$^{18}$ electronvolts. Thus, we can convert it into eV.
\[
\phi = 3.67 \times 10^{-19} \times 6.24 \times 10^{18} = 2.29 \ \mathrm{eV}
\]
If we use 450-nm light, we have the total energy as
\[
h\nu' = \frac{6.63\times 10^{-34}\cdot 3.00\times 10^8}{450\times 10^{-9}}=4.42\times 10^{-19} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Namely, it is 2.76 eV. Using equation (1), we have the kinetic energy.
\[
T = h\nu' - \phi = 2.76 - 2.29 = 0.47 \ \mathrm{eV}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
450-nm (450$\times$10$^{-9}$ m) wavelength light is incident on sodium surface for which the threshold wavelength of the photoelectrons is 542 nm (542$\times$10$^{-9}$ m). Find the work function of sodium and kinetic energy of the incident light after photoelectrons released.
Answer:
The work function is defined as the minimum energy to obtain electrons from the material surface to infinite distance. The frequency of some light is $\nu$. The partial energy of light may be used for the minimum threshold, which is the work function, $\phi$. The extra energy becomes the kinetic energy, $T$. Namely, we have the following relationship:
\begin{equation}
h\nu = \phi + T
\end{equation}
The Planck's constant, $h$, is 6.63 $\times$ 10$^{-34}$ Js. The frequency, $\nu$, is given by the speed of light, $c$, divided by wavelength, $\lambda$. In this case, the threshold wavelength is given, so we can exclude the term of the kinetic energy.
\begin{eqnarray}
\phi &=& h\nu = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \\
&=& \frac{6.63\times 10^{-34}\cdot 3.00\times 10^8}{542\times 10^{-9}} \\
&=& 3.67 \times 10^{-19} \ \mathrm{J}
\end{eqnarray}
One joule is 6.24 $\times$ 10$^{18}$ electronvolts. Thus, we can convert it into eV.
\[
\phi = 3.67 \times 10^{-19} \times 6.24 \times 10^{18} = 2.29 \ \mathrm{eV}
\]
If we use 450-nm light, we have the total energy as
\[
h\nu' = \frac{6.63\times 10^{-34}\cdot 3.00\times 10^8}{450\times 10^{-9}}=4.42\times 10^{-19} \ \mathrm{J}
\]
Namely, it is 2.76 eV. Using equation (1), we have the kinetic energy.
\[
T = h\nu' - \phi = 2.76 - 2.29 = 0.47 \ \mathrm{eV}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
AC circuit: Frequency of the generator
Question:
There is a AC circuit with a resistor $R=50 \ \Omega$. When the time is zero, the voltage is equal to zero. After 1/720 s, the voltage becomes a half of the maximum
voltage. Find the frequency of the voltage generator.
Answer:
The voltage varies with time, so
\[
V = V_m \sin \omega t
\]
where $V_m$ is the peak voltage. From the condition, we can express
\[
0.5V_m = V_m \sin \left(\omega\cdot \frac{1}{720}\right)
\]
$V_m$ is cancelled out. Then take the arcsine.
\[
\frac{\omega}{720} = \sin^{-1}0.5
\]
Therefore,
\[
\omega = 120 \pi \ \mathrm{rad/s}
\]
In order to get the frequency, divide it by $2\pi$.
\[
f = \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = 60 \ \mathrm{Hz}
\]
Note that we don't have to use the resistance.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
There is a AC circuit with a resistor $R=50 \ \Omega$. When the time is zero, the voltage is equal to zero. After 1/720 s, the voltage becomes a half of the maximum
voltage. Find the frequency of the voltage generator.
Answer:
The voltage varies with time, so
\[
V = V_m \sin \omega t
\]
where $V_m$ is the peak voltage. From the condition, we can express
\[
0.5V_m = V_m \sin \left(\omega\cdot \frac{1}{720}\right)
\]
$V_m$ is cancelled out. Then take the arcsine.
\[
\frac{\omega}{720} = \sin^{-1}0.5
\]
Therefore,
\[
\omega = 120 \pi \ \mathrm{rad/s}
\]
In order to get the frequency, divide it by $2\pi$.
\[
f = \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = 60 \ \mathrm{Hz}
\]
Note that we don't have to use the resistance.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Tuesday, February 9, 2016
Probability density function: Normal distribution
Question:
When a stochastic variable, $X$, obeys the normal distribution, the probability density function is given as
$p(x) = \exp(ax^2+bx+c) \quad (-\infty<x<\infty)$
where $a$, $b$, and $c$ are real. Suppose the mean value and standard deviation of $X$ are $x_0$ and $\sigma$, respectively. Find $a$, $b$, and $c$.
Answer:
The polynomial inside exponential can be modified as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
ax^2+bx+c &=& a\left[x^2+\frac{b}{a}x+\frac{c}{a}\right] \\
&=& a\left[x^2+\frac{b}{a}x+\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2+\frac{c}{a}\right] \\
&=& a\left[\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2+\frac{c}{a}\right]\\
&=& a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}
\end{eqnarray}
Thus, the probability density will become
\begin{equation}
p(x) = \exp\left(-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}\right)\exp\left(a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2\right)
\end{equation}
The probability density function with mean, $x_0$, and standard deviation, $\sigma$ forms
\begin{equation}
p(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\exp\left(-\frac{(x-x_0)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)
\end{equation}
Compare this with the above expression.
\[
x_0 = -\frac{b}{2a}, \quad -\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}=a
\]
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
a = -\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}, \quad b = \frac{x_0}{\sigma^2}
\end{equation}
For the other part,
\[
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}= \exp\left(-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}\right)
\]
Take the log.
\begin{eqnarray}
-\log\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma&=& -\frac{b^2}{4a}+c \\
c&=&-\frac{x^2_0}{2\sigma^2}-\log\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
When a stochastic variable, $X$, obeys the normal distribution, the probability density function is given as
$p(x) = \exp(ax^2+bx+c) \quad (-\infty<x<\infty)$
where $a$, $b$, and $c$ are real. Suppose the mean value and standard deviation of $X$ are $x_0$ and $\sigma$, respectively. Find $a$, $b$, and $c$.
Answer:
The polynomial inside exponential can be modified as follows:
\begin{eqnarray}
ax^2+bx+c &=& a\left[x^2+\frac{b}{a}x+\frac{c}{a}\right] \\
&=& a\left[x^2+\frac{b}{a}x+\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2+\frac{c}{a}\right] \\
&=& a\left[\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\left(\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2+\frac{c}{a}\right]\\
&=& a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}
\end{eqnarray}
Thus, the probability density will become
\begin{equation}
p(x) = \exp\left(-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}\right)\exp\left(a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2\right)
\end{equation}
The probability density function with mean, $x_0$, and standard deviation, $\sigma$ forms
\begin{equation}
p(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\exp\left(-\frac{(x-x_0)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)
\end{equation}
Compare this with the above expression.
\[
x_0 = -\frac{b}{2a}, \quad -\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}=a
\]
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
a = -\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}, \quad b = \frac{x_0}{\sigma^2}
\end{equation}
For the other part,
\[
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}= \exp\left(-\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}\right)
\]
Take the log.
\begin{eqnarray}
-\log\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma&=& -\frac{b^2}{4a}+c \\
c&=&-\frac{x^2_0}{2\sigma^2}-\log\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Potential energy and work: Spring
Question:
A spring is stretched when 4.0-kg object is hung on it vertically. The displacement is measured as 0.020 m. Then, one stretches it farther by 0.040 m. Find the work done by this external agent.
Answer:
Work can be obtained by integrating the force $|F|=kx$ with respect to correspondent displacement.
\begin{eqnarray}
W &=& \int^x_0 F\cdot dx \\
&=& \int^x_0 kx dx = \frac{1}{2}kx^2
\end{eqnarray}
In order to calculate the work, we need to find the spring constant, $k$. Consider the free-body diagram. The spring and gravitational forces act on the hanging mass. According to the equation of motion, we have the net force:
\[
\sum F = kx - mg = ma = 0
\]
This system is in equilibrium, so $a=0$. Thus,
\[
kx = mg \\
\rightarrow k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{4.0\cdot 9.8}{0.02}=1960 \ \mathrm{N/m}
\]
Now, we can calculate the work done by external agent.
\begin{eqnarray}
W &=& \frac{1}{2}kx^2 \\
&=& \frac{1}{2}1960 \cdot 0.04^2 \\
&=& 1.6 \ \mathrm{J}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A spring is stretched when 4.0-kg object is hung on it vertically. The displacement is measured as 0.020 m. Then, one stretches it farther by 0.040 m. Find the work done by this external agent.
Answer:
Work can be obtained by integrating the force $|F|=kx$ with respect to correspondent displacement.
\begin{eqnarray}
W &=& \int^x_0 F\cdot dx \\
&=& \int^x_0 kx dx = \frac{1}{2}kx^2
\end{eqnarray}
In order to calculate the work, we need to find the spring constant, $k$. Consider the free-body diagram. The spring and gravitational forces act on the hanging mass. According to the equation of motion, we have the net force:
\[
\sum F = kx - mg = ma = 0
\]
This system is in equilibrium, so $a=0$. Thus,
\[
kx = mg \\
\rightarrow k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{4.0\cdot 9.8}{0.02}=1960 \ \mathrm{N/m}
\]
Now, we can calculate the work done by external agent.
\begin{eqnarray}
W &=& \frac{1}{2}kx^2 \\
&=& \frac{1}{2}1960 \cdot 0.04^2 \\
&=& 1.6 \ \mathrm{J}
\end{eqnarray}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Infinite square well potential
Question:
There is an infinite potential well of width $a$. Find the ground state energy.
Answer:
The potential energies for each domain are
\begin{eqnarray}
V(x) &=& \infty \quad & &(x \leqq 0, \ x \geqq a) \\
V(x) &=& 0 \quad & &(0 < x < a)
\end{eqnarray}
For $V(x) = \infty$, obviously there is no particle since it gives zero for the wave function. For the other domain, the hamiltonian is
\[
H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}
\]
Therefore the Schroedinger equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} &=& E\psi \\
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi &=& 0 \\
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi &=& 0
\end{eqnarray}
where $k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$.
This differential equation has the general solution.
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = A\sin kx + B\cos kx
\end{equation}
The wave function is a continuous function; and both edges must be zero due to the infinite potential.
\begin{equation}
\psi(0) = \psi(a) = 0
\end{equation}
This indicates that the wave function must be odd because $0<x<a$. Thus, from equation (6), only the sine function survives, so the wave function is $\psi(x)=A\sin kx$. From (7),
\begin{equation}
A\sin ka = 0
\end{equation}
This gives
\begin{equation}
k_n a = n\pi, \quad n=0,1,2,...
\end{equation}
Since $k=\frac{n\pi}{a}$, the wave function becomes
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = A\sin \left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
\end{equation}
Let us now normalize the function.
\begin{eqnarray}
A^2\int^a_0 \sin^2\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) dx = 1
\end{eqnarray}
Put $\theta=\frac{n\pi x}{a}$, so $dx=\frac{a}{n\pi}d\theta$ and $0<\theta<n\pi$.
\begin{eqnarray}
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\int^{n\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta = 1 \\
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\left[\frac{\theta}{2}-\frac{\sin 2\theta}{4}\right]^{n\pi}_0 = 1 \\
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\frac{n\pi}{2} = 1 \\
& &A = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}
\end{eqnarray}
Hence, the wave function is completed as
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
\end{equation}
Now, we obtain the energy eigen values. From equations $k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$ and $k=\frac{n\pi}{a}$, we have
\begin{equation}
E_n = \frac{\hbar^2 k^2_n}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2 n^2 \pi^2}{2ma^2}
\end{equation}
$n=0$ corresponds to $E=0$, so the ground state energy is when $n=1$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
There is an infinite potential well of width $a$. Find the ground state energy.
Answer:
The potential energies for each domain are
\begin{eqnarray}
V(x) &=& \infty \quad & &(x \leqq 0, \ x \geqq a) \\
V(x) &=& 0 \quad & &(0 < x < a)
\end{eqnarray}
For $V(x) = \infty$, obviously there is no particle since it gives zero for the wave function. For the other domain, the hamiltonian is
\[
H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}
\]
Therefore the Schroedinger equation becomes
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} &=& E\psi \\
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi &=& 0 \\
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi &=& 0
\end{eqnarray}
where $k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$.
This differential equation has the general solution.
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = A\sin kx + B\cos kx
\end{equation}
The wave function is a continuous function; and both edges must be zero due to the infinite potential.
\begin{equation}
\psi(0) = \psi(a) = 0
\end{equation}
This indicates that the wave function must be odd because $0<x<a$. Thus, from equation (6), only the sine function survives, so the wave function is $\psi(x)=A\sin kx$. From (7),
\begin{equation}
A\sin ka = 0
\end{equation}
This gives
\begin{equation}
k_n a = n\pi, \quad n=0,1,2,...
\end{equation}
Since $k=\frac{n\pi}{a}$, the wave function becomes
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = A\sin \left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
\end{equation}
Let us now normalize the function.
\begin{eqnarray}
A^2\int^a_0 \sin^2\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) dx = 1
\end{eqnarray}
Put $\theta=\frac{n\pi x}{a}$, so $dx=\frac{a}{n\pi}d\theta$ and $0<\theta<n\pi$.
\begin{eqnarray}
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\int^{n\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta = 1 \\
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\left[\frac{\theta}{2}-\frac{\sin 2\theta}{4}\right]^{n\pi}_0 = 1 \\
& &\frac{A^2a}{n\pi}\frac{n\pi}{2} = 1 \\
& &A = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}
\end{eqnarray}
Hence, the wave function is completed as
\begin{equation}
\psi(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
\end{equation}
Now, we obtain the energy eigen values. From equations $k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$ and $k=\frac{n\pi}{a}$, we have
\begin{equation}
E_n = \frac{\hbar^2 k^2_n}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2 n^2 \pi^2}{2ma^2}
\end{equation}
$n=0$ corresponds to $E=0$, so the ground state energy is when $n=1$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Triple integral
Question:
Evaluate
$\iiint_D x\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2+z^2}dxdydz$
The domain is $D=\{(x,y,z) | x\geqq 0, y\geqq 0, x^2+y^2+z^2\leqq 1 \}$.
Answer:
Use the polar coordinate.
\begin{eqnarray*}
x &=& r\sin\theta \cos\phi \\
y &=& r\sin\theta \sin\phi \\
z &=& r\cos\theta
\end{eqnarray*}
Then, the Jacobian becomes $J=r^2\sin\theta$. Now substitute them into the original integral.
\begin{eqnarray}
I &=& \iiint_D x\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2+z^2}dxdydz \\
&=& {\scriptstyle \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+(r\sin\theta \cos\phi)^2+(r\sin\theta \sin\phi)^2+(r\cos\theta)^2}dr d\theta d\phi } \\
&=& {\scriptstyle \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2\sin^2\theta(\cos^2\phi + \sin^2\phi)+r^2\cos^2\theta}dr d\theta d\phi } \\
&=& \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2\sin^2\theta+r^2\cos^2\theta}dr d\theta d\phi \\
&=& \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2}dr d\theta d\phi \\
&=& \int^1_0 r^3\sqrt{1+r^2}dr \int^{\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta \int^{\pi/2}_0\cos\phi d\phi \\
\end{eqnarray}
The domain, $D$, explains that $0\leqq r \leqq 1$, $0\leqq \theta \leqq \pi$, and $0\leqq \phi \leqq \pi/2$. Let us calculate each part of the integral.
\begin{eqnarray*}
I_1 &=& \int^1_0 r^3\sqrt{1+r^2} dr \\
&=& \int^2_1 (t-1)\sqrt{t} dt \quad {\scriptstyle (\mathtt{Replaced \ with} \ 1+r^2=t.)} \\
&=& \frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{2}{5}t^{5/2}-\frac{2}{3}t^{3/2}\right]^2_1 \\
&=& \frac{2}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1) \\
I_2 &=& \int^{\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta \\
&=& \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{1-\cos 2\theta}{2} d\theta \\
&=& \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{1}{2}-\frac{\cos 2\theta}{2} d\theta \\
&=& \left[ \frac{\theta}{2}-\frac{\sin 2\theta}{4} \right]^{\pi}_0 \\
&=& \frac{\pi}{2} \\
I_3 &=& \int^{\pi/2}_0 \cos\phi d\phi \\
&=& \left[ \sin\phi \right]^{\pi/2}_0 \\
&=& 1
\end{eqnarray*}
Therefore,
\[
I = I_1\cdot I_2\cdot I_3 = \frac{2}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1)\cdot \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot 1 = \frac{\pi}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Evaluate
$\iiint_D x\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2+z^2}dxdydz$
The domain is $D=\{(x,y,z) | x\geqq 0, y\geqq 0, x^2+y^2+z^2\leqq 1 \}$.
Answer:
Use the polar coordinate.
\begin{eqnarray*}
x &=& r\sin\theta \cos\phi \\
y &=& r\sin\theta \sin\phi \\
z &=& r\cos\theta
\end{eqnarray*}
Then, the Jacobian becomes $J=r^2\sin\theta$. Now substitute them into the original integral.
\begin{eqnarray}
I &=& \iiint_D x\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2+z^2}dxdydz \\
&=& {\scriptstyle \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+(r\sin\theta \cos\phi)^2+(r\sin\theta \sin\phi)^2+(r\cos\theta)^2}dr d\theta d\phi } \\
&=& {\scriptstyle \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2\sin^2\theta(\cos^2\phi + \sin^2\phi)+r^2\cos^2\theta}dr d\theta d\phi } \\
&=& \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2\sin^2\theta+r^2\cos^2\theta}dr d\theta d\phi \\
&=& \iiint_D r^3\sin^2\theta \cos\phi\sqrt{1+r^2}dr d\theta d\phi \\
&=& \int^1_0 r^3\sqrt{1+r^2}dr \int^{\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta \int^{\pi/2}_0\cos\phi d\phi \\
\end{eqnarray}
The domain, $D$, explains that $0\leqq r \leqq 1$, $0\leqq \theta \leqq \pi$, and $0\leqq \phi \leqq \pi/2$. Let us calculate each part of the integral.
\begin{eqnarray*}
I_1 &=& \int^1_0 r^3\sqrt{1+r^2} dr \\
&=& \int^2_1 (t-1)\sqrt{t} dt \quad {\scriptstyle (\mathtt{Replaced \ with} \ 1+r^2=t.)} \\
&=& \frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{2}{5}t^{5/2}-\frac{2}{3}t^{3/2}\right]^2_1 \\
&=& \frac{2}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1) \\
I_2 &=& \int^{\pi}_0 \sin^2\theta d\theta \\
&=& \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{1-\cos 2\theta}{2} d\theta \\
&=& \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{1}{2}-\frac{\cos 2\theta}{2} d\theta \\
&=& \left[ \frac{\theta}{2}-\frac{\sin 2\theta}{4} \right]^{\pi}_0 \\
&=& \frac{\pi}{2} \\
I_3 &=& \int^{\pi/2}_0 \cos\phi d\phi \\
&=& \left[ \sin\phi \right]^{\pi/2}_0 \\
&=& 1
\end{eqnarray*}
Therefore,
\[
I = I_1\cdot I_2\cdot I_3 = \frac{2}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1)\cdot \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot 1 = \frac{\pi}{15}(\sqrt{2}+1)
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Monday, February 8, 2016
One dimensional quantum system: Step potential
Question:
Find the coefficients of transmission and reflection for a particle incident on the potential shown. The particle has energy, $E$, lager than the potential energy, $V_0$.
Answer:
This is a quantum system, so we can employ the Schroedinger equation.
\[
H\psi = E\psi
\]
where $H$, $\psi$, and $E$ are the hamiltonian, the wave function, and the energy eigen value, respectively. The hamiltonian operator in general consists of the kinetic and potential energies. In this case, the incident beam is a free particle, so there is zero potential energy before incident on the potential. Thus, we need to consider two cases of the equation:
When $x<0$,
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi = E\psi \\
\psi'' + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2} \psi = 0
\end{eqnarray}
The momentum can be expressed as $p=\hbar k$ where $k$ is the wave number. Thus,
\[
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m}
\]
We can derive
\[
k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}
\]
The equation (2) will become
\[
\psi'' + k^2 \psi = 0
\]
The solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi_I = Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx}
\end{equation}
When $x>0$,
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi = (E-V_0)\psi \\
\psi'' + \frac{2m(E-V_0)}{\hbar^2} \psi = 0
\end{eqnarray}
Let us put $k'=\frac{2m(E-V_0)}{\hbar^2}$. The solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi_{II} = Ce^{ik'x} + De^{-ik'x}
\end{equation}
The term $De^{-ik'x}$ represents the wave emanating from the right side, which is none. Therefore, we can let $D=0$. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\psi_{II} = Ce^{ik'x}
\end{equation}
Due to the consistency of quantum theory, the wave function and its first derivative must be continuous at $x=0$ in this problem. This means
\begin{eqnarray}
\psi_I(0) &=& \psi_{II}(0) \\
\frac{d}{dx}\psi_I(0) &=& \frac{d}{dx}\psi_{II}(0)
\end{eqnarray}
Use equations (3) and (7).
\begin{eqnarray}
A + B &=& C \\
A - B &=& \frac{k'}{k}C
\end{eqnarray}
Take the ratios $C/A$, which is related to the transmission, and $B/A$, which is related to the reflection.
\begin{equation}
\frac{C}{A}=\frac{2}{1+k'/k}, \quad \frac{B}{A}=\frac{1-k'/k}{1+k'/k}
\end{equation}
Now, the current density $J$ for the Schroedinger equation can be derived from the continuity equation, $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial J}{\partial x}=0$:
\begin{equation}
J = \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}\left(\psi^* \frac{d\psi}{dx} - \psi \frac{d\psi^*}{dx}\right)
\end{equation}
We can obtain the current density for the incident, transmission, and reflection by using equation (13); and $\psi_{\mathrm{inci}}=Ae^{ik}$, $\psi_{\mathrm{trans}}=Ce^{ik'}$, and $\psi_{\mathrm{reflec}}=Be^{ik}$
\begin{eqnarray*}
J_{\mathrm{inci}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik|A|^2 \\
J_{\mathrm{trans}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik'|C|^2 \\
J_{\mathrm{reflec}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik|B|^2
\end{eqnarray*}
Let us define transmission and reflection coefficients, $T$ and $R$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
T &\equiv& \left| \frac{J_{\mathrm{trans}}}{J_{\mathrm{inci}}} \right| = \left|\frac{C}{A}\right|^2 \frac{k'}{k}\\
R &\equiv& \left| \frac{J_{\mathrm{reflec}}}{J_{\mathrm{inci}}} \right| = \left|\frac{B}{A}\right|^2
\end{eqnarray*}
Use the result in (12); then, we have
\begin{equation*}
T=\frac{4k'/k}{(1+k'/k)^2}, \quad R=\left|\frac{1-k'/k}{1+k'/k}\right|^2
\end{equation*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Find the coefficients of transmission and reflection for a particle incident on the potential shown. The particle has energy, $E$, lager than the potential energy, $V_0$.
Answer:
This is a quantum system, so we can employ the Schroedinger equation.
\[
H\psi = E\psi
\]
where $H$, $\psi$, and $E$ are the hamiltonian, the wave function, and the energy eigen value, respectively. The hamiltonian operator in general consists of the kinetic and potential energies. In this case, the incident beam is a free particle, so there is zero potential energy before incident on the potential. Thus, we need to consider two cases of the equation:
When $x<0$,
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi = E\psi \\
\psi'' + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2} \psi = 0
\end{eqnarray}
The momentum can be expressed as $p=\hbar k$ where $k$ is the wave number. Thus,
\[
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m}
\]
We can derive
\[
k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}
\]
The equation (2) will become
\[
\psi'' + k^2 \psi = 0
\]
The solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi_I = Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx}
\end{equation}
When $x>0$,
\begin{eqnarray}
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi = (E-V_0)\psi \\
\psi'' + \frac{2m(E-V_0)}{\hbar^2} \psi = 0
\end{eqnarray}
Let us put $k'=\frac{2m(E-V_0)}{\hbar^2}$. The solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi_{II} = Ce^{ik'x} + De^{-ik'x}
\end{equation}
The term $De^{-ik'x}$ represents the wave emanating from the right side, which is none. Therefore, we can let $D=0$. Namely,
\begin{equation}
\psi_{II} = Ce^{ik'x}
\end{equation}
Due to the consistency of quantum theory, the wave function and its first derivative must be continuous at $x=0$ in this problem. This means
\begin{eqnarray}
\psi_I(0) &=& \psi_{II}(0) \\
\frac{d}{dx}\psi_I(0) &=& \frac{d}{dx}\psi_{II}(0)
\end{eqnarray}
Use equations (3) and (7).
\begin{eqnarray}
A + B &=& C \\
A - B &=& \frac{k'}{k}C
\end{eqnarray}
Take the ratios $C/A$, which is related to the transmission, and $B/A$, which is related to the reflection.
\begin{equation}
\frac{C}{A}=\frac{2}{1+k'/k}, \quad \frac{B}{A}=\frac{1-k'/k}{1+k'/k}
\end{equation}
Now, the current density $J$ for the Schroedinger equation can be derived from the continuity equation, $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial J}{\partial x}=0$:
\begin{equation}
J = \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}\left(\psi^* \frac{d\psi}{dx} - \psi \frac{d\psi^*}{dx}\right)
\end{equation}
We can obtain the current density for the incident, transmission, and reflection by using equation (13); and $\psi_{\mathrm{inci}}=Ae^{ik}$, $\psi_{\mathrm{trans}}=Ce^{ik'}$, and $\psi_{\mathrm{reflec}}=Be^{ik}$
\begin{eqnarray*}
J_{\mathrm{inci}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik|A|^2 \\
J_{\mathrm{trans}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik'|C|^2 \\
J_{\mathrm{reflec}} &=& \frac{\hbar^2}{2mi}2ik|B|^2
\end{eqnarray*}
Let us define transmission and reflection coefficients, $T$ and $R$.
\begin{eqnarray*}
T &\equiv& \left| \frac{J_{\mathrm{trans}}}{J_{\mathrm{inci}}} \right| = \left|\frac{C}{A}\right|^2 \frac{k'}{k}\\
R &\equiv& \left| \frac{J_{\mathrm{reflec}}}{J_{\mathrm{inci}}} \right| = \left|\frac{B}{A}\right|^2
\end{eqnarray*}
Use the result in (12); then, we have
\begin{equation*}
T=\frac{4k'/k}{(1+k'/k)^2}, \quad R=\left|\frac{1-k'/k}{1+k'/k}\right|^2
\end{equation*}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Sunday, February 7, 2016
Lorentz contraction
Question:
A 2.00-m stick is moving in one direction, and the length is observed to be 1.00 m from the laboratory frame. How fast is the stick moving?
Answer:
This kinematics is based on the special theory of relativity. Due to time dilation, the original length in motion is observed shorter. Suppose $L_0$ and $L$ are the original length and the contracted length, respectively. From the insight of relativity, we have
\[
L = L_0\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}
\]
where $v$ and $c$ are speed of the stick and speed of light. Let us solve for the speed of the stick.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 &=& 1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} \\
\frac{v^2}{c^2} &=& 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \\
v^2 &=& c^2\left[ 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \right] \\
v &=& \sqrt{c^2\left[ 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \right]}
\end{eqnarray*}
Then, plug in the numbers.
\[
v = \sqrt{(3.0\times 10^8)^2 \left[ 1 - \left(\frac{1.00}{2.00}\right)^2 \right]}
= 2.60 \times 10^8 \quad \mathrm{m/s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A 2.00-m stick is moving in one direction, and the length is observed to be 1.00 m from the laboratory frame. How fast is the stick moving?
Answer:
This kinematics is based on the special theory of relativity. Due to time dilation, the original length in motion is observed shorter. Suppose $L_0$ and $L$ are the original length and the contracted length, respectively. From the insight of relativity, we have
\[
L = L_0\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}
\]
where $v$ and $c$ are speed of the stick and speed of light. Let us solve for the speed of the stick.
\begin{eqnarray*}
\left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 &=& 1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} \\
\frac{v^2}{c^2} &=& 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \\
v^2 &=& c^2\left[ 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \right] \\
v &=& \sqrt{c^2\left[ 1 - \left(\frac{L}{L_0}\right)^2 \right]}
\end{eqnarray*}
Then, plug in the numbers.
\[
v = \sqrt{(3.0\times 10^8)^2 \left[ 1 - \left(\frac{1.00}{2.00}\right)^2 \right]}
= 2.60 \times 10^8 \quad \mathrm{m/s}
\]
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Equations of logarithmic functions
Question:
There are two functions:
$y = 2+\log_2(23-x) $
$y = \log_{\sqrt{2}}(x-8)$
Find the $x$-coordinate of the intersection of these curves.
Answer:
A general logarithmic function reads
\[
y = \log(X)
\]
Within real numbers, $X$ must be positive. The functions given above can also be found the domains in terms of this feature. From the function, $y = 2+\log_2(23-x)$, the domain must be
\[
23-x>0 \\
\rightarrow x < 23
\]
Likewise, the second function has the domain:
\[
x>8
\]
Thus, we can estimate the position of the intersection should be $8<x<23$. (See the figure.)
Now, equate both functions:
\[
2+\log_2(23-x) = \log_{\sqrt{2}}(x-8)
\]
Let us use
\[
\log_ab = \frac{\log_cb}{\log_ca}
\]
The base of right hand side can be changed into 2, and the constant in left hand side, 2, can become $\log_24$. Then, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
\log_24 + \log_2(23-x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\log_2\sqrt{2}} \\
\log_24(23-x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\log_22^{1/2}} \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\frac{1}{2}} \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& 2\log_2(x-8) \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& \log_2(x-8)^2 \\
92-4x &=& (x-8)^2 \\
92-4x &=& x^2-16x+64 \\
x^2-12x-28 &=& 0 \\
(x-14)(x+2) &=& 0
\end{eqnarray*}
We can have $x=14$ or $x=-2$. However, the domain must be $8<x<23$, so the intersection is $x=14$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
There are two functions:
$y = 2+\log_2(23-x) $
$y = \log_{\sqrt{2}}(x-8)$
Find the $x$-coordinate of the intersection of these curves.
Answer:
A general logarithmic function reads
\[
y = \log(X)
\]
Within real numbers, $X$ must be positive. The functions given above can also be found the domains in terms of this feature. From the function, $y = 2+\log_2(23-x)$, the domain must be
\[
23-x>0 \\
\rightarrow x < 23
\]
Likewise, the second function has the domain:
\[
x>8
\]
Thus, we can estimate the position of the intersection should be $8<x<23$. (See the figure.)
Now, equate both functions:
\[
2+\log_2(23-x) = \log_{\sqrt{2}}(x-8)
\]
Let us use
\[
\log_ab = \frac{\log_cb}{\log_ca}
\]
The base of right hand side can be changed into 2, and the constant in left hand side, 2, can become $\log_24$. Then, we have
\begin{eqnarray*}
\log_24 + \log_2(23-x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\log_2\sqrt{2}} \\
\log_24(23-x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\log_22^{1/2}} \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& \frac{\log_2(x-8)}{\frac{1}{2}} \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& 2\log_2(x-8) \\
\log_2(92-4x) &=& \log_2(x-8)^2 \\
92-4x &=& (x-8)^2 \\
92-4x &=& x^2-16x+64 \\
x^2-12x-28 &=& 0 \\
(x-14)(x+2) &=& 0
\end{eqnarray*}
We can have $x=14$ or $x=-2$. However, the domain must be $8<x<23$, so the intersection is $x=14$.
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Ballistic pendulum
Question:
A 0.010-kg bullet is fired toward a 2.0-kg pendulum. The bullet is sucked in the pendulum block and both are raised up to 0.20-m height together. What is the initial velocity of the bullet?
Answer:
The masses of the bullet and the block can be denoted as $m$ and $M$, respectively. The initial velocity of the bullet and the final velocity of both the bullet and block are $v$ and $V$. Consider the states (a) through (b) in the figure. According to the conservation of linear momentum, the total initial momentum must be equal to the total final momentum.
\begin{equation}
mv = (m+M)V
\end{equation}
Now, consider the states (b) to (c). For those states, we use the conservation of mechanical energy.
\begin{equation}
\frac{1}{2}(m+M)V^2 = (m+M)gh
\end{equation}
$v$ and $V$ are unknown. In order to obtain the initial velocity, solve for $V$ first from the equation (1).
\begin{equation}
V = \frac{mv}{m+M}
\end{equation}
From equation (2), we have
\begin{equation}
V = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
\frac{mv}{m+M} = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{equation}
The initial velocity is
\begin{equation}
v = \frac{m+M}{m}\sqrt{2gh} = \frac{0.010+2.00}{0.010}\sqrt{2\cdot 9.8\cdot 0.20} = 398\quad\mathrm{m/s}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
A 0.010-kg bullet is fired toward a 2.0-kg pendulum. The bullet is sucked in the pendulum block and both are raised up to 0.20-m height together. What is the initial velocity of the bullet?
Answer:
The masses of the bullet and the block can be denoted as $m$ and $M$, respectively. The initial velocity of the bullet and the final velocity of both the bullet and block are $v$ and $V$. Consider the states (a) through (b) in the figure. According to the conservation of linear momentum, the total initial momentum must be equal to the total final momentum.
\begin{equation}
mv = (m+M)V
\end{equation}
Now, consider the states (b) to (c). For those states, we use the conservation of mechanical energy.
\begin{equation}
\frac{1}{2}(m+M)V^2 = (m+M)gh
\end{equation}
$v$ and $V$ are unknown. In order to obtain the initial velocity, solve for $V$ first from the equation (1).
\begin{equation}
V = \frac{mv}{m+M}
\end{equation}
From equation (2), we have
\begin{equation}
V = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{equation}
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
\frac{mv}{m+M} = \sqrt{2gh}
\end{equation}
The initial velocity is
\begin{equation}
v = \frac{m+M}{m}\sqrt{2gh} = \frac{0.010+2.00}{0.010}\sqrt{2\cdot 9.8\cdot 0.20} = 398\quad\mathrm{m/s}
\end{equation}
Powered by Hirophysics.com
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)